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Shrinam

· started a discussion

· 1 Months ago

Doubt?? (Question: 269966.0 )

when the question is saying 5% loss on total outlay then why have you taken the loss only on the cost of carriage ??
it must be calculated on Rs. 204 instead of Rs.104.....

Question:

A man buys goods and finds that the cost of carriage is 4 percent of the cost of goods. He is compelled to sell at a loss of 5% of his total outlay. If, however, he had received Rs. 32.50 more than he did, he would have gained 2.5%. What was the original cost of the goods?

Options:
A)

Rs.416.67

B)

Rs.614.47

C)

Rs.461.67

D)

Rs.641.47

Solution:

Ans: (a)

  

Vipul

· commented

· 1 Months ago

bhot dimaag lagate ho bhai tum log..bacha ke rakho kaam aayega

Abhishek

· commented

· 1 Months ago

cost of carriage is 4 not 104

rahul singh

· commented

· 1 Months ago

absolutely bro

Shrinam

· commented

· 1 Months ago

thanks.. i got it

Tanya bisht

· commented

· 1 Months ago

Since CP of carriage is 4% of CP of goods(i.e 100) which equals 4.Therefore, the total cost becomes 104.
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