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Bhawana Rawat

· started a discussion

· 1 Months ago

EVEN WITH YOUR EXPLANATION, IF 20 LTRS OF WATER CAN BE FILLED IN 20 MINS BY THE FIRST PIPE AND THUS ITS RATE IS 1 LTR PER MIN.
ACCORDINGLY, PIPE WITH 20% LESS EFFICIENCY SHOULD HAVE A RATE OF .8 LTRS PER MIN. NOT .2 LTRS PER MIN AS GIVEN BY YOU.

Question:

If one pipe A can fill a tank in 20 minutes then 5 pipes each of 20% efficiency of A, can fill the tank in:

Options:
A) 80 min.
B) 100 min.
C) 20 min.
D) 25 min.
Solution:
Ans: (c) A \(\rightarrow\) 20} 20 \(\rightarrow\) 1 per min.

1 pipe with 20% less efficiency will fill 1 × .2 = .2 litr of water in 1min.

So, 5 pipes will fill the tank in 1min. = .2 × 5 = 1 ltr

So, the time taken to fill the tank by 5 pipes = 20 ÷ 1 = 20 min.


Alternate method-


Efficiency of pipe A,
\(\cfrac{100}{20}\) = 5%
20% of efficiency of A = 1%
Then, efficiency of 5 such pipes = 5%.
Then,
Time taken to fill the tank = \(\cfrac{100}{5}\) = 20 min.

jay yadav

· commented

· 1 Months ago

pipes effieciency is equal to 20% of the pipe A..not less

Knowledge Expert

· commented

· 1 Months ago

Dear student
Given answer is correct
Please solve the Question carefully

Best wishes
Team TR

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