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Monica

· started a discussion

· 1 Months ago

Another possible solution (Question: 192330.0 )

why can't we use the formula (20/10)^2 as there is loss of 20% and gain of 20%?

Question:
A house and a shop were sold for Rs. 1 lakh each. In this transaction, the house sale resulted into 20% whereas the shop sale into 20% profit. The entire transaction resulted in : 
Options:
A) neither loss nor gain
B) gain of Rs. \(\cfrac{1}{24}\) lakh
C) loss of Rs. \(\cfrac{1}{12}\) lakh
D) loss of Rs. \(\cfrac{1}{18}\) lakh
Solution:
Ans: (c) S.P. of house = Rs. 1 lakh

Loss percent = 20%

C.P. of house = Rs. \(\cfrac{5}{4}\) lakh

S.P. of shop = Rs.1 lakh

Profit percent = 20%

C.P. of house = Rs. \(\cfrac{5}{6}\) lakh

Total C.P. = \(\left ( \cfrac {5}{6} + \cfrac{5}{4} \right )\) =  \(\cfrac{25}{12}\) lakh

Total S.P. = 1 + 1 = 2 lakh

Loss = \(\left ( \cfrac {25}{12} - 2 \right )\) = \(\cfrac{1}{12}\)  lakh

Michael Kom

· commented

· 1 Months ago

by using that formula.
loss = 4%
here 4% implies that the lost is 4% of the total CP, not the SP..
hence the ans.

Sushil Sinha

· commented

· 1 Months ago

by using this formula loss % = 4%
let CP = x
then x * 96%=2 lakh (SP) OR CP = 2*100/96 LAKH
loss = SP-CP= 2*100/96 - 2
= 2(100-96 / 96)
= 2 * 4/96 = 1/12 LAKH

Knowledge Expert

· commented

· 1 Months ago

Dear Student,

This formula used to calculate loss %. But In this question we have to find answer in amount form thus we can use another formula-

In profit case: SP/(100+Profit)%=CP
In loss Case: SP/(100−Loss)%=CP

Keep learning with us!!
Best wishes
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