deepak (Question: 89849.0 )

Knowledge Expert

· commented

· 1 Months ago

@deepak Ratio of Sand to cement has been asked.......not sand to mixture....

kannu

· commented

· 1 Months ago

@Knowledge Expert out of 4 parts if i part of mixture goes to sand...then 3
parts goes to cement...
proportion of sand to cement 1:3 is the ans...isn't it?

Knowledge Expert

· commented

· 1 Months ago

@deepak Since, sand is free of cost, so we have to pay only for cement, Therefore, out of 4 parts 1 part is profit so profit =25%

kannu

· commented

· 1 Months ago

@Knowledge Expert let A:B = 1:4
then %share of A = 1/1+4 = 1/5...thats equal to 20%...but we need to find out 25%...

kannu

· commented

· 1 Months ago

@Kanhaiya Jha let A:B=1:4
then % share of A = 1/1+4 = 1/5...thats equal to 20%
% share of B = 1/5...thats equal to 80%

Talented Boy

· commented

· 1 Months ago

@deepak its obvious that 1 is 25% of 4.....

kannu

· commented

· 1 Months ago

@Kanhaiya Jha 1:4 means 4 parts of cement and 1 part of sand....
isn't then 20% gain..? how you got 25%? plz explain

Knowledge Expert

· commented

· 1 Months ago

@Kanhaiya Jha Exactly..........look at the solution Deepak........

Talented Boy

· commented

· 1 Months ago

1: 4 is the correct answer.

Let cost price of 1 kg cement = Rs. 1
and cost price of 1 kg sand = 0
As the mixture is sold at cost price, cost price of mixture = 1/1.25 = 4/5

Ratio of quantity of sand to quantity of cement to gain 25%

= 1/5 : 4/5 = 1/4

deepak (Question: 89849.0 )

Please Choose Suitable Categories For Your Discussion