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25 Most Important Static Legal Knowledge Questions for CLAT 2023

Author : Tanya Kaushal

November 19, 2022

SHARE

Reader's Digest: CLAT (Common Law Admission Test) 2023 is scheduled for 18 December 2022. So, all the preparations might be in full swing. Static Legal Knowledge is one of the lengthiest topics prepared by the CLAT aspirants. However, you don't have to hop from site to site to collect the Legal Knowledge questions. We have curated the most important 25 questions from the vast range of static legal knowledge questions for CLAT. It can't get better than this! Can it? Take a pen and paper and read this blog article to solve Static GK questions for CLAT 2023.

Static Legal Knowledge Questions for CLAT 2023 - GK Questions with Answers

The GK section of CLAT consists of 50 questions divided across Static GK and Current Affairs categories. As a matter of fact, it is the most scoring and the least time-consuming section.

Do you want to know some of the most interesting facts about the static legal knowledge section? Go through the points mentioned:

  • You can use this to your advantage by allocating more time to other examination sections.
  • Focusing more on the static legal knowledge questions for CLAT helps boost your overall score and increase your final rank.
  • The questions asked are factual and direct.
  • The CLAT GK section has approximately 35-40 questions on static knowledge and current affairs.
  • It mainly consists of Current Events based on Awards, Government Policies,  Books, Act Changes, etc. & Static GK (General Studies), contemporary events of significance from India and the world, international affairs, arts and Culture, and historical events of continuing significance.
  • The Legal reasoning and G.K. & Current Affairs sections each carry 25% weightage of marks.

Download Free Study Material For CLAT 2023 Exam by LegalEdge

Enhance your Static Legal GK Preparation for CLAT by practising the questions below.

 Question 1: Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in:

(a). 1971.

(b). 1967.

(c). 1968.

(d). 1972.

Answer: (c). 1968.

Explanation:  The Lokpal Bill was introduced in Parliament in 1968. You should remember two authorities, i.e. The Lokpal, which deals with the Central level government, and Lokayukta, which deals with the state-level government.

The Lokpal Bill was introduced only to ensure corruption at any level didn’t happen. But this was only introduced in 1968 and has not yet been implemented.

Question 2: Police have the power to arrest without a warrant in:

(a). Bailable Offence.

(b). Cognizable Offence.

(c). Non - Cognizable Offence.

(d). None of these.

Must Read: Short tricks to crack the CLAT exam on the first attempt

Answer: (b). Cognizable Offence.

Explanation: The police only have the power to arrest without a warrant in Cognizable Offence. 

There are three natures of offences that are: -

  1. Cognizable and Non - Cognizable Offences.
  2. Bailable and Non-Bailable Offences.
  3. Compoundable and Non - Compoundable Offences.

Cognizable Offences are where the police can arrest the criminal without a warrant. And in Non - Cognizable Offences, police cannot arrest the criminal without a warrant.

Question 3: Doctrine of Precedent is also called:

(a). Doctrine of Stare Decisis.

(b). Doctrine of Waiver.

(c). Doctrine of Laches.

(d). Doctrine of Colorable Legislation.

Answer: (a). The doctrine of Stare Decisis.

Read more: Quantitative techniques study plan for CLAT exam

Explanation: The Doctrine of Precedent is called the Doctrine of Stare Decisis.

The Doctrine of Stare Decisis means to stand by the order. To stand by the order indicates that if the supreme court passes any order, the high court or any district court has to stand by it because the highest authority of law gives it.

Question 4: Which one of the following expressions embodies the meaning of ‘the scientific study of Law’?

(a). Turbulence.

(b). Jurisprudence.

(c). Psychology.

(d). Jurisdiction.

Answer: (b). Jurisprudence.

Explanation:  Jurisprudence is the meaning of the expression ‘the scientific study of law’.

Jurisprudence means the knowledge of the law. Juris means law, and prudence implies knowledge.

Question 5: Which one of the following is not included in the term ‘Hindu’ used in the Hindu Marriage Act 1955?

(a). Sikhs.

(b). Jains.

(c). Parsis.

(d). Buddhists.

Answer: (c). Parsis.

Read more: Important Linear Arrangement Questions for CLAT 

Explanation:  Parsis are not included in the term ‘Hindu’ used in the Hindu Marriage Act 1955.

In Hinduism, Hindus, Jains, Sikhs, and Buddhists are included.

In the Hindu Marriage Act, Succession Act, Adoption and Maintenance Act, or any family law-related act, only these four are included, i.e. Hindus, Jains, Sikhs, and Buddhists. Parsis, Christians and Muslims are not included in these acts at all.

Question 6: When a higher tribunal or the same tribunal declares a decision to be wrong in a subsequent case, it is called:

(a). Overruling.

(b). Reversal.

(c). Status Quo.

(d). Sustained.

Answer: (a). Overruling.

CLAT Mock Tests

CLAT Mock Tests

Explanation: If the court of law passes a judgement in a particular matter and that judgement stays there only. But in any case, if the higher authority court changes that judgement, that is called overruling.

Question 7: Adultery is a ground for?

(a). Judicial Separation.

(b). Divorce.

(c). Both (a). And (b).

(d). Restitution of Conjugation Rights.

Answer: (c). Both (a). And (b).

Must Read: Short tricks to score 25+ marks in CLAT logical reasoning section

Explanation: The ground for divorce and judicial separation are the same.

Adultery is a ground for both Judicial Separation and Divorce.

Question 8: The expression jus gentium means:

(a). That law with natural reason establishes for all men.

(b). That law which natural reason establishes for riparian states.

(c). That law which natural reason establishes for land-locked states.

(d). That law which natural reason establishes for all women.

Answer: (a). That law which with natural reason establishes for all men.

Explanation: The expression jus gentium means that law which, with natural reason, establishes for all men.

Generally, when the natural or any international law is established, that establishment is done by jus gentium only. 

Jus means law, and Gentium means applicable to all men. 

Question 9: Grave and Sudden Provocation?

(a). Question of fact.

(b). Question of Law.

(c). Mixed Questions under Law.

(d). A presumption under Law.

Answer: (a). Question of fact.

Read moreMistakes To Avoid In the CLAT exam.

Explanation: Grave and Sudden Provocation is a Question of fact.

In your article, you will see many times that this scenario is a question of fact, a question of law, a mixed question of act and law, or a presumption taken by law.

Question of fact means that whatever matter you have got, you have to solve that matter based on the facts only.

Question 10: For the offence of abetment?

(a). It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

(b). It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed Partially.

(c). It is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

(d). None of the Above.

Answer: (c). It is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

Explanation: For the offence of abutment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

Question 11: The Indian Constitution is in Structure:

(a). Unitary.

(b). Federal.

(c). Partly Unitary and Partly Federal.

(d). Rigid.

Answer: (c). Partly Unitary and Partly Federal.

Explanation: The structure of the Indian Constitution is partly unitary and partly federal.

The Indian constitution has the features of a unitary and the features of a federal constitution. 

Question 12: Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides for:

(a). Ex Post Facto Law, Double Jeopardy and preventive detention.

(b). Ex Post Facto Law / Double Jeopardy / right against self-incrimination.

(c). Ex Post Facto Laws and self-incrimination only.

(d). Ex Post Facto Laws / Double Jeopardy / Preventive Detention.

Answer: (b). Ex Post Facto Law / Double Jeopardy / right against self-incrimination.

ExplanationArticle 20 of the Indian Constitution deals with Ex Post Facto Law / Double Jeopardy / and the Right against self-incrimination law.

Ex Post Facto law means that if someone has done some work, the retrospective application of work or the prospective application of work is required. This discussion is done in Ex post-Facto law.

Jeopardy means that no person should be punished twice for the same offence.

CLAT Online Coaching

CLAT online coaching

Question 13: Who amongst the following is not appointed by the president of India?

(a). Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

(b). Judges of the High Court.

(c). Governor of the State.

(d). Chief Minister of the State.

Answer: (d). Chief Minister of the State.

Question 14: The highest law officer of a state in India is:

(a). Advocate General.

(b). Solicitor General.

(c). Attorney General.

(d). Central Law of Minister.

Answer: (a). Advocate General.

Read moreBest GK Books for CLAT Preparation

Explanation: The highest law officer of a state in India is Advocate General.

Question 15: Ad - hoc judges are:

(a). Impeached Judges.

(b). Retired Judges.

(c). Judges selected only for a particular case or for a particular purpose.

(d). Judges also act as heads of government-appointed committees.

Answer: (c). Judges are selected only for a particular case or for a specific purpose.

Explanation: Ad - hoc judges are the judges who are selected for a specific case or a particular purpose.

Question 16: Generally, dedicated legislation means the law made by the 

(a). Legislature.

(b). Executive.

(c). Judiciary.

(d). Either (b) or (c). 

Answer: (b). Executive.

Explanation: Generally dedicated legislation means the law made by the Executive.

Question 17: Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the constitution of India?

(a). Written Constitution and Supremacy of the Constitution.

(b). Quasi - federal Structure.

(c). Committed Judiciary.

(d). Distribution of Powers.

Answer: (c). Committed Judiciary.

Explanation: Committed Judiciary is not the salient feature of the constitution of India.

Question 18: Who is regarded as the “Father of All - India Services?"

(a). Lord Macaulay.

(b). Lord Cornwallis.

(c). BR Ambedkar.

(d). Sardar Patel.

Answer: (d). Sardar Patel.

Explanation: Sardar Patel was regarded as the “Father of All - India Services."

Question 19: When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor, but by different wives, they are said to be related to each other by?

(a). Full Blood.

(b). Half-Blood.

(c). Uterine Blood.

(d). Either (b) or (c).

Answer: (b) Half-Blood.

Explanation: Half-Blood means common ancestor with different wives. 

Uterine Blood means the same wives but different husbands.

Question 20: The Union Cabinet has approved raising the upper limit for legal abortions from 20 weeks to ________?

(a). 21 weeks

(b). 22 weeks

(c). 23 weeks

(d). 24 weeks

Answer: (d). 24 weeks

Explanation

The Union Cabinet has approved the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020, which proposed an extension of the upper limit for abortions to 24 weeks from 20 weeks. The Bill will be introduced in the ensuing session of the Parliament.

The extension to 24 weeks will help survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like differently-abled women, Minors) etc.

Question 21: The Constitution 104th Amendment Act, which shall come into force on 25 January 2020, seeks to abolish the provision for the nomination of which of the following? 

(a). Other Backward Classes 

(b). Anglo Indians

(c). SC & amp; ST

(d). None of the above.

Answer: (b). Anglo Indians

Explanation: 

The One Hundred and Fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India extends the deadline for the cessation of the reservation of seats for members from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies by a period of 10 years.

The reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was set to expire on 26 January 2020 as mandated by the Ninety Fifth Amendment but was extended for another ten years.

The amendment does not, however, extend the reservation period of the 2 Lok Sabha seats and seats in State Legislative Assemblies reserved for members of the Anglo-Indian Community. Thus the practice of nominating two members of the Anglo-Indian community by the President of India under the recommendation of the Prime Minister of India was effectively abolished.

Question 22: As per the latest order of the Central Government, the civil judgements of which of the following countries are now enforceable in India under section 44A of CPC? 

(a). United Arab Emirates

(b). Thailand

(c). Kazakhstan

(d). Sri Lanka

Answer: (a). United Arab Emirates

Explanation: 

Now Civil Judgments of the UAE Court are enforceable in India as the Central Government declared the United Arab Emirates to be a reciprocating territory under Section 44A of CPC.

Question 23: Which of the following High Courts has issued a notice on a plea against witch hunting?

(a). Guwahati High Court

(b). Madhya Pradesh High Court 

(c). Rajasthan High Court

(d). None of the above. 

Answer: (b). Madhya Pradesh High Court 

Explanation:

The Madhya Pradesh High Court has issued notice on a plea filed against the infamous practice of witch hunting, prevalent in the state. The bench of justice SC Sharma and justice Shailendra Shukla have listed the matter for hearing next month. In several states, witch-hunting leads to dispossession, torture, and murder.

Question 24: Which of the following Courts has upheld that reading the Preamble is not incitement to the offence?

(a). Delhi High Court

(b). Supreme Court

(c). Delhi Sessions court 

(d). None of the above

Answer: (c). Delhi Sessions Court

Explanation:

'Reading Of Preamble Not Incitement To Offence': Delhi Court In Chandra Shekhar Azad's Bail Order.

Question 25: Which Supreme Court judges have recused themselves from the constitution bench hearing centre's curative plea on the Bhopal Gas Tragedy? 

(a). Justice Indu Malhotra 

(b). Justice Arun Mishra 

(c). Justice Ravindra Bhat 

(d). Justice Deepak Gupta 

Answer: (c). Justice Ravindra Bhat 

Explanation:

Bhopal Gas Tragedy: Justice Ravindra Bhat Recuses From Constitution Bench Hearing Centre's Curative Plea.

Best Books for CLAT Current Affairs 2023

The questions in this section will require you to demonstrate your awareness of GK and Current Affairs. 

STATIC LEGAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS FOR CLAT 2023

STATIC LEGAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS FOR CLAT 2023

You can include the following books during your CLAT GK Preparation, as these cover both static GK and current affairs.

Current Affairs Books for CLAT Preparation 2023 Author/Publisher
Manorama Year Book Mammen Mathew
General Knowledge 2020 and 2019 Arihant Publications
Current Affairs Yearly Arihant Publications
India Year Book GOI
Pearson’s Concise GK Manual  Pearson

You can enhance your preparation levels with the help of the best Online Coaching Classes for CLAT.

Summing Up - Practice those mentioned above Static Legal Knowledge Questions for CLAT. Come back and revise these questions before the exam. Good luck with your preparation! Happy Reading!

“Work hard in silence. Let success make the noise.”

Frequently Asked Questions

Yes, static GK subjects such as History, Art & Culture, Indian Polity, Geography, International Treaties and Agreements will be asked apart from Current Affairs questions in CLAT 2023.
You can prepare the static GK portion for CLAT 2023 in 6-8 months.
CLAT toppers study allot 1-2 hours daily to the static GK questions. 
To maximise your CLAT 2023 score, you must study static legal knowledge questions.
To clear the basics, you can easily study the static legal knowledge questions for CLAT 2023 from NCERT. Later on, move on to the domain-specific books. 
  • Home
  • 25 Most Important St...

25 Most Important Static Legal Knowledge Questions for CLAT 2023

Author : Tanya Kaushal

Updated On : November 19, 2022

SHARE

Reader's Digest: CLAT (Common Law Admission Test) 2023 is scheduled for 18 December 2022. So, all the preparations might be in full swing. Static Legal Knowledge is one of the lengthiest topics prepared by the CLAT aspirants. However, you don't have to hop from site to site to collect the Legal Knowledge questions. We have curated the most important 25 questions from the vast range of static legal knowledge questions for CLAT. It can't get better than this! Can it? Take a pen and paper and read this blog article to solve Static GK questions for CLAT 2023.

Static Legal Knowledge Questions for CLAT 2023 - GK Questions with Answers

The GK section of CLAT consists of 50 questions divided across Static GK and Current Affairs categories. As a matter of fact, it is the most scoring and the least time-consuming section.

Do you want to know some of the most interesting facts about the static legal knowledge section? Go through the points mentioned:

  • You can use this to your advantage by allocating more time to other examination sections.
  • Focusing more on the static legal knowledge questions for CLAT helps boost your overall score and increase your final rank.
  • The questions asked are factual and direct.
  • The CLAT GK section has approximately 35-40 questions on static knowledge and current affairs.
  • It mainly consists of Current Events based on Awards, Government Policies,  Books, Act Changes, etc. & Static GK (General Studies), contemporary events of significance from India and the world, international affairs, arts and Culture, and historical events of continuing significance.
  • The Legal reasoning and G.K. & Current Affairs sections each carry 25% weightage of marks.

Download Free Study Material For CLAT 2023 Exam by LegalEdge

Enhance your Static Legal GK Preparation for CLAT by practising the questions below.

 Question 1: Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in:

(a). 1971.

(b). 1967.

(c). 1968.

(d). 1972.

Answer: (c). 1968.

Explanation:  The Lokpal Bill was introduced in Parliament in 1968. You should remember two authorities, i.e. The Lokpal, which deals with the Central level government, and Lokayukta, which deals with the state-level government.

The Lokpal Bill was introduced only to ensure corruption at any level didn’t happen. But this was only introduced in 1968 and has not yet been implemented.

Question 2: Police have the power to arrest without a warrant in:

(a). Bailable Offence.

(b). Cognizable Offence.

(c). Non - Cognizable Offence.

(d). None of these.

Must Read: Short tricks to crack the CLAT exam on the first attempt

Answer: (b). Cognizable Offence.

Explanation: The police only have the power to arrest without a warrant in Cognizable Offence. 

There are three natures of offences that are: -

  1. Cognizable and Non - Cognizable Offences.
  2. Bailable and Non-Bailable Offences.
  3. Compoundable and Non - Compoundable Offences.

Cognizable Offences are where the police can arrest the criminal without a warrant. And in Non - Cognizable Offences, police cannot arrest the criminal without a warrant.

Question 3: Doctrine of Precedent is also called:

(a). Doctrine of Stare Decisis.

(b). Doctrine of Waiver.

(c). Doctrine of Laches.

(d). Doctrine of Colorable Legislation.

Answer: (a). The doctrine of Stare Decisis.

Read more: Quantitative techniques study plan for CLAT exam

Explanation: The Doctrine of Precedent is called the Doctrine of Stare Decisis.

The Doctrine of Stare Decisis means to stand by the order. To stand by the order indicates that if the supreme court passes any order, the high court or any district court has to stand by it because the highest authority of law gives it.

Question 4: Which one of the following expressions embodies the meaning of ‘the scientific study of Law’?

(a). Turbulence.

(b). Jurisprudence.

(c). Psychology.

(d). Jurisdiction.

Answer: (b). Jurisprudence.

Explanation:  Jurisprudence is the meaning of the expression ‘the scientific study of law’.

Jurisprudence means the knowledge of the law. Juris means law, and prudence implies knowledge.

Question 5: Which one of the following is not included in the term ‘Hindu’ used in the Hindu Marriage Act 1955?

(a). Sikhs.

(b). Jains.

(c). Parsis.

(d). Buddhists.

Answer: (c). Parsis.

Read more: Important Linear Arrangement Questions for CLAT 

Explanation:  Parsis are not included in the term ‘Hindu’ used in the Hindu Marriage Act 1955.

In Hinduism, Hindus, Jains, Sikhs, and Buddhists are included.

In the Hindu Marriage Act, Succession Act, Adoption and Maintenance Act, or any family law-related act, only these four are included, i.e. Hindus, Jains, Sikhs, and Buddhists. Parsis, Christians and Muslims are not included in these acts at all.

Question 6: When a higher tribunal or the same tribunal declares a decision to be wrong in a subsequent case, it is called:

(a). Overruling.

(b). Reversal.

(c). Status Quo.

(d). Sustained.

Answer: (a). Overruling.

CLAT Mock Tests

CLAT Mock Tests

Explanation: If the court of law passes a judgement in a particular matter and that judgement stays there only. But in any case, if the higher authority court changes that judgement, that is called overruling.

Question 7: Adultery is a ground for?

(a). Judicial Separation.

(b). Divorce.

(c). Both (a). And (b).

(d). Restitution of Conjugation Rights.

Answer: (c). Both (a). And (b).

Must Read: Short tricks to score 25+ marks in CLAT logical reasoning section

Explanation: The ground for divorce and judicial separation are the same.

Adultery is a ground for both Judicial Separation and Divorce.

Question 8: The expression jus gentium means:

(a). That law with natural reason establishes for all men.

(b). That law which natural reason establishes for riparian states.

(c). That law which natural reason establishes for land-locked states.

(d). That law which natural reason establishes for all women.

Answer: (a). That law which with natural reason establishes for all men.

Explanation: The expression jus gentium means that law which, with natural reason, establishes for all men.

Generally, when the natural or any international law is established, that establishment is done by jus gentium only. 

Jus means law, and Gentium means applicable to all men. 

Question 9: Grave and Sudden Provocation?

(a). Question of fact.

(b). Question of Law.

(c). Mixed Questions under Law.

(d). A presumption under Law.

Answer: (a). Question of fact.

Read moreMistakes To Avoid In the CLAT exam.

Explanation: Grave and Sudden Provocation is a Question of fact.

In your article, you will see many times that this scenario is a question of fact, a question of law, a mixed question of act and law, or a presumption taken by law.

Question of fact means that whatever matter you have got, you have to solve that matter based on the facts only.

Question 10: For the offence of abetment?

(a). It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

(b). It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed Partially.

(c). It is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

(d). None of the Above.

Answer: (c). It is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

Explanation: For the offence of abutment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

Question 11: The Indian Constitution is in Structure:

(a). Unitary.

(b). Federal.

(c). Partly Unitary and Partly Federal.

(d). Rigid.

Answer: (c). Partly Unitary and Partly Federal.

Explanation: The structure of the Indian Constitution is partly unitary and partly federal.

The Indian constitution has the features of a unitary and the features of a federal constitution. 

Question 12: Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides for:

(a). Ex Post Facto Law, Double Jeopardy and preventive detention.

(b). Ex Post Facto Law / Double Jeopardy / right against self-incrimination.

(c). Ex Post Facto Laws and self-incrimination only.

(d). Ex Post Facto Laws / Double Jeopardy / Preventive Detention.

Answer: (b). Ex Post Facto Law / Double Jeopardy / right against self-incrimination.

ExplanationArticle 20 of the Indian Constitution deals with Ex Post Facto Law / Double Jeopardy / and the Right against self-incrimination law.

Ex Post Facto law means that if someone has done some work, the retrospective application of work or the prospective application of work is required. This discussion is done in Ex post-Facto law.

Jeopardy means that no person should be punished twice for the same offence.

CLAT Online Coaching

CLAT online coaching

Question 13: Who amongst the following is not appointed by the president of India?

(a). Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

(b). Judges of the High Court.

(c). Governor of the State.

(d). Chief Minister of the State.

Answer: (d). Chief Minister of the State.

Question 14: The highest law officer of a state in India is:

(a). Advocate General.

(b). Solicitor General.

(c). Attorney General.

(d). Central Law of Minister.

Answer: (a). Advocate General.

Read moreBest GK Books for CLAT Preparation

Explanation: The highest law officer of a state in India is Advocate General.

Question 15: Ad - hoc judges are:

(a). Impeached Judges.

(b). Retired Judges.

(c). Judges selected only for a particular case or for a particular purpose.

(d). Judges also act as heads of government-appointed committees.

Answer: (c). Judges are selected only for a particular case or for a specific purpose.

Explanation: Ad - hoc judges are the judges who are selected for a specific case or a particular purpose.

Question 16: Generally, dedicated legislation means the law made by the 

(a). Legislature.

(b). Executive.

(c). Judiciary.

(d). Either (b) or (c). 

Answer: (b). Executive.

Explanation: Generally dedicated legislation means the law made by the Executive.

Question 17: Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the constitution of India?

(a). Written Constitution and Supremacy of the Constitution.

(b). Quasi - federal Structure.

(c). Committed Judiciary.

(d). Distribution of Powers.

Answer: (c). Committed Judiciary.

Explanation: Committed Judiciary is not the salient feature of the constitution of India.

Question 18: Who is regarded as the “Father of All - India Services?"

(a). Lord Macaulay.

(b). Lord Cornwallis.

(c). BR Ambedkar.

(d). Sardar Patel.

Answer: (d). Sardar Patel.

Explanation: Sardar Patel was regarded as the “Father of All - India Services."

Question 19: When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor, but by different wives, they are said to be related to each other by?

(a). Full Blood.

(b). Half-Blood.

(c). Uterine Blood.

(d). Either (b) or (c).

Answer: (b) Half-Blood.

Explanation: Half-Blood means common ancestor with different wives. 

Uterine Blood means the same wives but different husbands.

Question 20: The Union Cabinet has approved raising the upper limit for legal abortions from 20 weeks to ________?

(a). 21 weeks

(b). 22 weeks

(c). 23 weeks

(d). 24 weeks

Answer: (d). 24 weeks

Explanation

The Union Cabinet has approved the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020, which proposed an extension of the upper limit for abortions to 24 weeks from 20 weeks. The Bill will be introduced in the ensuing session of the Parliament.

The extension to 24 weeks will help survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like differently-abled women, Minors) etc.

Question 21: The Constitution 104th Amendment Act, which shall come into force on 25 January 2020, seeks to abolish the provision for the nomination of which of the following? 

(a). Other Backward Classes 

(b). Anglo Indians

(c). SC & amp; ST

(d). None of the above.

Answer: (b). Anglo Indians

Explanation: 

The One Hundred and Fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India extends the deadline for the cessation of the reservation of seats for members from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies by a period of 10 years.

The reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was set to expire on 26 January 2020 as mandated by the Ninety Fifth Amendment but was extended for another ten years.

The amendment does not, however, extend the reservation period of the 2 Lok Sabha seats and seats in State Legislative Assemblies reserved for members of the Anglo-Indian Community. Thus the practice of nominating two members of the Anglo-Indian community by the President of India under the recommendation of the Prime Minister of India was effectively abolished.

Question 22: As per the latest order of the Central Government, the civil judgements of which of the following countries are now enforceable in India under section 44A of CPC? 

(a). United Arab Emirates

(b). Thailand

(c). Kazakhstan

(d). Sri Lanka

Answer: (a). United Arab Emirates

Explanation: 

Now Civil Judgments of the UAE Court are enforceable in India as the Central Government declared the United Arab Emirates to be a reciprocating territory under Section 44A of CPC.

Question 23: Which of the following High Courts has issued a notice on a plea against witch hunting?

(a). Guwahati High Court

(b). Madhya Pradesh High Court 

(c). Rajasthan High Court

(d). None of the above. 

Answer: (b). Madhya Pradesh High Court 

Explanation:

The Madhya Pradesh High Court has issued notice on a plea filed against the infamous practice of witch hunting, prevalent in the state. The bench of justice SC Sharma and justice Shailendra Shukla have listed the matter for hearing next month. In several states, witch-hunting leads to dispossession, torture, and murder.

Question 24: Which of the following Courts has upheld that reading the Preamble is not incitement to the offence?

(a). Delhi High Court

(b). Supreme Court

(c). Delhi Sessions court 

(d). None of the above

Answer: (c). Delhi Sessions Court

Explanation:

'Reading Of Preamble Not Incitement To Offence': Delhi Court In Chandra Shekhar Azad's Bail Order.

Question 25: Which Supreme Court judges have recused themselves from the constitution bench hearing centre's curative plea on the Bhopal Gas Tragedy? 

(a). Justice Indu Malhotra 

(b). Justice Arun Mishra 

(c). Justice Ravindra Bhat 

(d). Justice Deepak Gupta 

Answer: (c). Justice Ravindra Bhat 

Explanation:

Bhopal Gas Tragedy: Justice Ravindra Bhat Recuses From Constitution Bench Hearing Centre's Curative Plea.

Best Books for CLAT Current Affairs 2023

The questions in this section will require you to demonstrate your awareness of GK and Current Affairs. 

STATIC LEGAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS FOR CLAT 2023

STATIC LEGAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS FOR CLAT 2023

You can include the following books during your CLAT GK Preparation, as these cover both static GK and current affairs.

Current Affairs Books for CLAT Preparation 2023 Author/Publisher
Manorama Year Book Mammen Mathew
General Knowledge 2020 and 2019 Arihant Publications
Current Affairs Yearly Arihant Publications
India Year Book GOI
Pearson’s Concise GK Manual  Pearson

You can enhance your preparation levels with the help of the best Online Coaching Classes for CLAT.

Summing Up - Practice those mentioned above Static Legal Knowledge Questions for CLAT. Come back and revise these questions before the exam. Good luck with your preparation! Happy Reading!

“Work hard in silence. Let success make the noise.”

Frequently Asked Questions

Yes, static GK subjects such as History, Art & Culture, Indian Polity, Geography, International Treaties and Agreements will be asked apart from Current Affairs questions in CLAT 2023.
You can prepare the static GK portion for CLAT 2023 in 6-8 months.
CLAT toppers study allot 1-2 hours daily to the static GK questions. 
To maximise your CLAT 2023 score, you must study static legal knowledge questions.
To clear the basics, you can easily study the static legal knowledge questions for CLAT 2023 from NCERT. Later on, move on to the domain-specific books. 

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