July 27, 2026
Overview: CUET Chemistry Important Questions is a valuable resource for students preparing for the CUET UG exam. It highlights the most frequently asked and high-weightage questions based on previous years' trends, covering Organic, Inorganic, and Physical Chemistry.
Direct answer:
For CUET Chemistry 2027, the highest-return questions come from Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics and Coordination Compounds — together roughly two-thirds of the paper.
All 50 questions are compulsory, each carrying +5 for a correct answer and –1 for a wrong one, out of 250 marks in 60 minutes.
Q1. 45 g of ethylene glycol (C₂H₆O₂, molar mass 62 g mol⁻¹) is dissolved in 600 g of water. What is the depression in freezing point? (K_f for water = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹)
(a) 1.86 K
(b) 2.25 K
(c) 3.72 K
(d) 0.75 K
Answer: (b) 2.25 K Moles of solute = 45 / 62 = 0.726. Molality = 0.726 / 0.600 kg = 1.21 mol kg⁻¹. ΔT_f = K_f × m = 1.86 × 1.21 = 2.25 K.
Q2. Four aqueous solutions are each 0.1 molal. Which has the highest boiling point?
(a) Glucose
(b) Urea
(c) NaCl
(d) K₂SO₄
Answer: (d) K₂SO₄ Elevation in boiling point depends on particle count. Van't Hoff factor: glucose and urea i = 1, NaCl i = 2, K₂SO₄ i = 3. Highest i, highest ΔT_b.
Shortcut: equal molality across all four options means the question is about the van't Hoff factor and nothing else.
Q3. Which of the following liquid pairs shows positive deviation from Raoult's law?
(a) Chloroform + acetone
(b) Ethanol + acetone
(c) Phenol + aniline
(d) Nitric acid + water
Answer: (b) Ethanol + acetone Acetone breaks the hydrogen bonding between ethanol molecules, so A–B interactions are weaker than A–A and B–B. Vapour pressure rises above the ideal value.
The other three form stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonds and show negative deviation.
Q4. When an electric current is passed through acidified water, 112 mL of hydrogen gas measured at S.T.P. is collected at the cathode in 965 seconds. The current passed, in ampere, is:
(a) 1.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.1
Answer: (a) 1.0 A n(H₂) = 0.112 / 22.4 = 0.005 mol. From 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂, charge = 2 × 0.005 × 96500 = 965 C. Current = Q / t = 965 / 965 = 1.0 A.
Trap: forgetting the factor of 2. Write the half-reaction before touching the calculator.
Q5. Which electrode has been universally accepted as a reference electrode at all temperatures and assigned a value of zero volt?
(a) Platinum electrode
(b) Copper electrode
(c) Standard hydrogen electrode
(d) Graphite electrode
Answer: (c) Standard hydrogen electrode The SHE — Pt | H₂ (1 bar) | H⁺ (1 M) — is assigned E° = 0.00 V by convention. Every standard electrode potential you memorise is measured relative to it.
Q6. For the cell Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(1 M) ‖ Cu²⁺(1 M) | Cu(s) with E°_cell = +1.10 V, what happens to E_cell when [Cu²⁺] is reduced to 0.01 M?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Becomes zero
Answer: (b) Decreases E_cell = E°_cell − (0.059/n) log([Zn²⁺]/[Cu²⁺]). Lowering [Cu²⁺] raises the log term, so more is subtracted and E_cell falls. Shortcut: Le Chatelier gets you there faster — less reactant at the cathode, less driving force.
Q7. On dilution, the molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte such as acetic acid rises sharply. The main reason is:
(a) The number of ions per unit volume increases
(b) The degree of dissociation increases
(c) Interionic attractions increase
(d) The viscosity of the solution increases
Answer: (b) The degree of dissociation increases For weak electrolytes, dilution shifts the dissociation equilibrium forward, so the total number of ions produced per mole rises steeply. For strong electrolytes the increase is small and caused only by reduced interionic attraction.
Q8. A first-order reaction is 50% complete in 30 minutes. How long will it take to reach 75% completion?
(a) 45 minutes
(b) 60 minutes
(c) 90 minutes
(d) 120 minutes
Answer: (b) 60 minutes Half-life is constant for a first-order reaction. 50% complete = one half-life = 30 min. 75% complete leaves 25% = two half-lives = 60 minutes. Shortcut: 75%, 87.5% and 93.75% are all clean half-life multiples. Spot them and you never need the rate equation.
Q9. The unit of the rate constant for a zero-order reaction is:
(a) s⁻¹
(b) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
(c) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
(d) mol² L⁻² s⁻¹
Answer: (b) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ Units of k are (mol L⁻¹)^(1−n) s⁻¹. At n = 0 this becomes mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ — identical to the units of rate, because rate is independent of concentration.
Q10. The rate constant of a reaction increases with temperature mainly because:
(a) Activation energy decreases
(b) The fraction of molecules possessing energy equal to or greater than the activation energy increases
(c) Collision frequency decreases
(d) Threshold energy decreases
Answer: (b) Activation energy is a property of the reaction and does not change with temperature. What changes is the Maxwell–Boltzmann distribution: at higher temperature a larger fraction of collisions clears the energy barrier.
Q11. In acidic medium, KMnO₄ acts as an oxidising agent and manganese is reduced to:
(a) MnO₂
(b) MnO₄²⁻
(c) Mn²⁺
(d) Mn³⁺
Answer: (c) Mn²⁺ MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O, a five-electron change. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium the product is MnO₂ instead. Trap: the medium is the question. Read "acidic", "neutral" or "alkaline" before you read the options.
Q12. Lanthanoid contraction is primarily a consequence of:
(a) Increasing nuclear charge with perfect shielding by 4f electrons
(b) The poor shielding effect of 4f electrons
(c) Increasing atomic size across the series
(d) Progressive filling of 5d orbitals
Answer: (b) The poor shielding effect of 4f electrons 4f electrons shield outer electrons from the nucleus poorly, so effective nuclear charge climbs steadily across the series and atomic and ionic radii contract.
Q13. Which of the following ions is colourless in aqueous solution?
(a) Cu²⁺
(b) Ti³⁺
(c) Sc³⁺
(d) Ni²⁺
Answer: (c) Sc³⁺ Colour in transition metal ions arises from d–d transitions, which need partially filled d orbitals. Sc³⁺ is d⁰, so no d–d transition is possible. Cu²⁺ (d⁹), Ti³⁺ (d¹) and Ni²⁺ (d⁸) are all coloured.
Q14. The IUPAC name of K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is:
(a) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(II)
(b) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(III)
(c) Potassium ferricyanide(III)
(d) Tripotassium hexacyanidoiron(III)
Answer: (b) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(III) Three K⁺ ions mean the complex ion carries a 3− charge. With six CN⁻ ligands, iron must be +3. Anionic complexes take the -ate suffix on the Latin metal name, giving ferrate(III). Trap: the oxidation state in brackets is the only thing separating the two plausible options. Balance the charge first, name second.
Q15. [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is diamagnetic. Its geometry and hybridisation are:
(a) Tetrahedral, sp³
(b) Square planar, dsp²
(c) Octahedral, d²sp³
(d) Square planar, sp³d
Answer: (b) Square planar, dsp² Ni is +2 (d⁸). CN⁻ is a strong-field ligand, so the two unpaired 3d electrons pair up and free a 3d orbital. dsp² hybridisation gives a square planar, diamagnetic complex. Compare: [NiCl₄]²⁻ with weak-field Cl⁻ stays tetrahedral and paramagnetic. Same metal, same oxidation state — the ligand decides.
Q16. Which of the following complexes shows optical isomerism?
(a) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(b) [Co(en)₃]³⁺
(c) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(d) [Ni(CO)₄]
Answer: (b) [Co(en)₃]³⁺ A tris-chelate octahedral complex with three bidentate ethylenediamine ligands is chiral — its mirror image cannot be superimposed on it. The other three all possess a plane of symmetry.
Q17. The ease of dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides with alcoholic KOH is:
(a) tertiary < secondary < primary
(b) tertiary > secondary > primary
(c) secondary > tertiary > primary
(d) primary > tertiary > secondary
Answer: (b) tertiary > secondary > primary Elimination follows the stability of the alkene formed. Tertiary halides have the most β-hydrogens and give the most substituted, most stable alkene, so they eliminate fastest. Trap: alcoholic KOH means elimination; aqueous KOH means substitution, where the SN2 order reverses. Read the reagent.
Q18. Which of the following undergoes an SN2 reaction fastest? (a) CH₃Br (b) CH₃CH₂Br (c) (CH₃)₂CHBr (d) (CH₃)₃CBr
Answer: (a) CH₃Br SN2 needs backside attack on the carbon bearing the halogen. Less steric crowding, faster reaction. The tertiary halide is effectively unreactive by this route.
Q19. Chlorobenzene is far less reactive than chloromethane towards nucleophilic substitution because:
(a) The C–Cl bond in chlorobenzene has partial double-bond character due to resonance
(b) The benzene ring is electron deficient
(c) Cl⁻ is a weak nucleophile
(d) Chlorobenzene is non-polar
Answer: (a) Resonance delocalises the chlorine lone pair into the ring, shortening and strengthening the C–Cl bond. A stronger bond is harder to break, so displacement of chloride becomes very difficult. The sp² carbon also resists nucleophilic attack.
Q20. Arrange in order of decreasing acidic strength: phenol, p-nitrophenol, p-cresol, ethanol.
(a) ethanol > phenol > p-cresol > p-nitrophenol
(b) p-nitrophenol > phenol > p-cresol > ethanol
(c) phenol > p-nitrophenol > ethanol > p-cresol
(d) p-cresol > p-nitrophenol > phenol > ethanol
Answer: (b) p-nitrophenol > phenol > p-cresol > ethanol Acidity tracks conjugate-base stability. The electron-withdrawing –NO₂ group delocalises the negative charge, so p-nitrophenol is strongest. The electron-donating –CH₃ group destabilises it, putting p-cresol below phenol. Ethanol has no ring to delocalise into and is weakest.
Q21. Which of the following compounds undergoes electrophilic substitution more readily than benzene?
(a) Nitrobenzene
(b) Benzoic acid
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) Phenol
Answer: (d) Phenol The –OH group is a strong activating group. Its +M effect pushes electron density into the ring, raising nucleophilicity at the ortho and para positions. The other three carry electron-withdrawing groups that deactivate the ring.
Q22. Phenol reacts with chloroform in the presence of aqueous NaOH, followed by acidification, to give:
(a) Salicylic acid
(b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Benzoic acid
(d) Benzaldehyde
Answer: (b) Salicylaldehyde This is the Reimer–Tiemann reaction. The dichlorocarbene intermediate attacks the ring ortho to –OH, giving salicylaldehyde after hydrolysis. Compare: phenol with CO₂ under pressure and NaOH gives salicylic acid — that is Kolbe's reaction. Two different reagents, two different products, frequently swapped in options.
Q23. In Williamson's synthesis, the better combination for preparing tert-butyl methyl ether is:
(a) Sodium tert-butoxide + methyl iodide
(b) Sodium methoxide + tert-butyl iodide
(c) tert-Butanol + methanol
(d) Sodium methoxide + methanol
Answer: (a) Sodium tert-butoxide + methyl iodide Williamson's synthesis proceeds by SN2, so the halide must be primary or methyl. In option (b), the bulky tertiary halide would undergo elimination instead, giving an alkene rather than the ether. Principle worth memorising: in any unsymmetrical ether synthesis, put the bulk on the alkoxide and keep the halide small.
Q24. Which of the following does not undergo aldol condensation?
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Propanal
(c) Acetone
(d) Benzaldehyde
Answer: (d) Benzaldehyde Aldol condensation requires at least one α-hydrogen so a carbanion can form. Benzaldehyde has none — which is exactly why it undergoes Cannizzaro reaction with concentrated alkali instead.
Q25. Which compound gives the Cannizzaro reaction?
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Formaldehyde
(c) Propanal
(d) Acetone
Answer: (b) Formaldehyde Cannizzaro reaction is a disproportionation shown only by aldehydes lacking α-hydrogen. Formaldehyde qualifies; acetaldehyde, propanal and acetone all have α-hydrogens. Two-in-one shortcut: "no α-hydrogen" simultaneously rules out aldol and rules in Cannizzaro.
Q26. Which of the following is the strongest acid?
(a) CH₃COOH
(b) ClCH₂COOH
(c) Cl₂CHCOOH
(d) Cl₃CCOOH
Answer: (d) Cl₃CCOOH Each chlorine withdraws electron density inductively, stabilising the carboxylate anion. Three chlorines stabilise it most, so trichloroacetic acid is the strongest acid of the four.
Q27. The correct order of basic strength in aqueous solution is:
(a) NH₃ > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₂NH > (CH₃)₃N
(b) (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃
(c) (CH₃)₃N > (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > NH₃
(d) CH₃NH₂ > NH₃ > (CH₃)₂NH > (CH₃)₃N
Answer: (b) (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃ In water, basicity balances three factors: the +I effect of methyl groups, steric hindrance around nitrogen, and solvation of the resulting cation. The secondary amine optimises all three. The trimethylamine cation is poorly solvated and sterically crowded, which drops it below the primary amine. Trap: in the gas phase, with no solvation, the order becomes cleanly (CH₃)₃N > (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > NH₃. Check whether the question specifies aqueous solution.
Q28. Aniline does not undergo Friedel–Crafts reaction because:
(a) Aniline is basic in nature
(b) The lone pair on nitrogen forms a complex with AlCl₃, leaving the ring strongly deactivated
(c) Aniline is insoluble in nitrobenzene
(d) The –NH₂ group is meta directing
Answer: (b) AlCl₃ is a Lewis acid and the nitrogen lone pair is a Lewis base. They form an adduct that puts a positive charge on nitrogen, converting a strongly activating group into a strongly deactivating one. The ring can no longer be attacked by the electrophile.
Q29. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose
(b) Maltose
c) Lactose
(d) Sucrose
Answer: (d) Sucrose In sucrose, the glycosidic linkage involves the anomeric carbons of both glucose and fructose, so no free aldehyde or ketone group is available. Maltose and lactose each retain one free anomeric carbon and are therefore reducing.
Q30. The secondary structure of proteins is stabilised mainly by:
(a) Peptide bonds
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Disulphide bridges
(d) Hydrophobic interactions
Answer: (b) Hydrogen bonds. Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N–H groups of the backbone holds the α-helix and β-pleated sheet in shape. Peptide bonds define the primary structure; disulphide bridges and hydrophobic interactions stabilise tertiary structure.
Extend your practice by unit with CUET organic chemistry questions and CUET Chemistry Biomolecules PYQs. Formula-heavy units are covered in CUET Chemistry important formulas.
You can download the CUET UG previous year question paper PDFs from the links given below:
| CUET Subjects | CUET 2025 Question Paper with Answers |
| English | |
| Mathematics | |
|
General Aptitude Test |
|
| Political Science | |
| Accountancy | |
| Economics | |
| Geography | |
| History | |
| Sociology | |
| Business Studies | |
| Psychology |
Chemistry is a Section II domain paper, Subject Code 306, delivered as a computer-based test.
|
Particular |
Detail (2026 pattern, expected to continue in 2027) |
|
Subject code |
306 |
|
Total questions |
50 |
|
Questions to attempt |
All 50 — compulsory, no internal choice |
|
Marks per correct answer |
+5 |
|
Marks per wrong answer |
–1 |
|
Unattempted / marked for review |
0 |
|
Maximum marks |
250 |
|
Duration |
60 minutes |
|
Time per question |
About 72 seconds |
|
Syllabus base |
NCERT Class 12 Chemistry |
|
Number of examinable units |
10 |
|
Mode |
Computer-based test (CBT) |
|
Total CUET UG subjects available |
37 |
|
Maximum subjects a candidate may select |
5, across all three sections |
Two lines here matter more than the rest.
All 50 questions are compulsory
Until the 2024 cycle, domain papers offered 50 questions and asked for any 40. You could skip your weakest chapter and lose nothing.
That cushion is gone. Every unit you leave untouched now costs marks directly — which is precisely why a unit-balanced set of CUET Chemistry important questions matters more in 2027 than it did three years ago.
Negative marking with no escape route
You cannot walk away from a question without cost, but wild guessing is also penalised.
The arithmetic is worth internalising: eliminate two of four options and a guess between the remaining two returns (0.5 × 5) + (0.5 × −1) = +2 marks on average. Below two eliminations, leave it blank.
Compare across your other papers using the CUET exam pattern and the subject-specific CUET Chemistry exam pattern.
This is the section most competing pages skip, and it is the one that saves you the most time.
The Chemistry syllabus follows the rationalised NCERT Class 12 curriculum, which dropped six chapters.
|
Chapter you will find in older PDFs |
Status for CUET Chemistry 2027 |
|
Solid State |
Not in the current syllabus |
|
Surface Chemistry |
Not in the current syllabus |
|
General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements (Metallurgy) |
Not in the current syllabus |
|
p-Block Elements |
Not in the current syllabus |
|
Polymers |
Not in the current syllabus |
|
Chemistry in Everyday Life |
Not in the current syllabus |
If a practice set asks you about cryolite in aluminium extraction, Teflon in cookware, aspirin from salicylic acid, packing efficiency in a face-centred cubic lattice, or bleaching powder — that set was built for an older syllabus. Close it.
One caution: the deletions have been revised more than once since 2023.
Before you finalise a revision plan, open the Chemistry syllabus PDF inside the CUET UG 2027 bulletin at cuet.nta.nic.in and confirm the unit list yourself.
Our tracked version is maintained at CUET Chemistry syllabus, and the broader picture is in the CUET syllabus hub.
Students often ask whether Class 11 material is included — that is answered separately in is Class 11 syllabus included in CUET.
You can download the CUET UG previous year question paper PDFs from the links given below:
| CUET Subjects | CUET 2024 Question Paper with Answers |
| English | |
| Mathematics | |
|
General Aptitude Test |
|
| Political Science | |
| Accountancy | |
| Economics | |
| Geography | |
| History | |
| Sociology | |
| Business Studies | |
| Psychology |
Methodology. NTA does not publish official chapter weightage for any CUET domain subject.
The bands below come from SuperGrads faculty analysis of CUET Chemistry question papers across the 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025 and 2026 cycles, reviewed by the SuperGrads CUET Academic Team.
|
Unit |
Branch |
Indicative questions |
Priority |
|
VII — Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers |
Organic |
6–9 |
Must cover |
|
VI — Haloalkanes and Haloarenes |
Organic |
6–9 |
Must cover |
|
VIII — Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids |
Organic |
5–7 |
Must cover |
|
II — Electrochemistry |
Physical |
5–7 |
Must cover |
|
III — Chemical Kinetics |
Physical |
4–6 |
Must cover |
|
IX — Amines |
Organic |
4–6 |
High |
|
IV — d- and f-Block Elements |
Inorganic |
4–6 |
High |
|
V — Coordination Compounds |
Inorganic |
4–6 |
High |
|
I — Solutions |
Physical |
3–5 |
High |
|
X — Biomolecules |
Organic |
3–5 |
Moderate |
What this means in practice. Organic Chemistry runs to roughly half the paper. A student strong in Physical Chemistry who avoids reaction mechanisms is capping their own score somewhere near 130 out of 250. If your time is limited, the sequence that protects the most marks is:
Organic (Units VI, VII, VIII, IX) → Electrochemistry and Kinetics → Coordination Compounds and d-/f-Block → Solutions → Biomolecules
Unit-level priority notes are expanded in CUET Chemistry important topics.
Recognising the Important CUET Chemistry question types within the first five seconds is a trainable skill, and it is worth training. CUET Chemistry uses six recurring formats.
|
Question type |
What it tests |
Usual source units |
|
Direct concept recall |
Definition or textbook fact |
d-/f-Block, Biomolecules |
|
Numerical |
Formula application under time pressure |
Electrochemistry, Kinetics, Solutions |
|
Reaction and product prediction |
Mechanism understanding |
Haloalkanes, Alcohols, Aldehydes, Amines |
|
Assertion–Reason |
Whether you know why, not just what |
Coordination Compounds, Amines |
|
Match the following |
Breadth across a whole unit |
d-/f-Block, Coordination Compounds |
|
Order and comparison (acidity, basicity, reactivity) |
Trend reasoning |
Alcohols and Phenols, Amines, Haloalkanes |
The order-and-comparison type is where marks leak quietly. It looks like recall but it is reasoning, and there is no partial credit. Questions 20, 26 and 27 in the set above are deliberately of this type.
You must — there is no choice — but how you attempt them decides your score. Use a three-pass method inside the 60 minutes.
|
Pass |
Time |
What you do |
|
Pass 1 |
0–25 min |
Answer everything you are certain about. Flag any numerical that runs past 60 seconds and move on. |
|
Pass 2 |
25–48 min |
Return to flagged numericals and reaction-prediction items, now that easy marks are banked. |
|
Pass 3 |
48–60 min |
Clear the leftovers. Answer only where you can eliminate two or more options; leave the rest blank. |
The elimination rule, in numbers:
|
Options eliminated |
Expected value of a guess |
|
None |
(0.25 × 5) + (0.75 × −1) = +0.5 |
|
One |
(0.33 × 5) + (0.67 × −1) = +1.0 |
|
Two |
(0.5 × 5) + (0.5 × −1) = +2.0 |
Across ten borderline questions, blind guessing returns about 5 marks. Ten disciplined two-option eliminations return closer to 20. That 15-mark gap is a percentile band at CUET scale.
For score benchmarks, see what is a good score in CUET Chemistry. Remember that NTA reports normalised percentile scores and each university sets its own cutoff — track the CUET cut-off trends for your target course.
Practise this against a live clock. Timing strategy that has only been read never survives the real paper. 👉 Take a free CUET Chemistry mock test
You can download the CUET UG previous year question paper PDFs from the links given below:
| CUET Subjects | CUET 2023 Question Paper with Answers |
| English | |
| Mathematics | |
|
General Aptitude Test |
|
| Political Science | |
| Accountancy | |
| Economics | |
| Geography | |
| History | |
| Sociology | |
| Business Studies | |
| Psychology |
Observed across SuperGrads mock-test cohorts:
Revising from pre-2023 question banks. Six chapters are no longer examinable. Solving them feels productive and returns nothing.
Treating Organic Chemistry as memorisation. Mechanisms are roughly half the paper. Reagent-and-product flashcards collapse the moment one condition changes — see Q22 and Q23 above.
Ignoring assertion–reason practice. These items require you to evaluate two statements and the link between them. Untrained, they consume two minutes each.
Skipping numericals in Electrochemistry and Kinetics. They recur every cycle and are the most predictable marks on the paper.
Guessing without elimination. With –1 in force, the difference between blind and disciplined guessing is roughly 15 marks.
Not reading the medium or the reagent. Acidic versus alkaline, alcoholic versus aqueous KOH, aqueous versus gas phase — one word flips the answer.
Never rehearsing the 60-minute clock. At 72 seconds per question, chapter-wise practice without a timer builds accuracy but not pace.
Fix the first one today by working from CUET Chemistry notes built on the current syllabus.
The 30 CUET Chemistry important questions above show you the types. Previous year papers give you the calibration — how hard NTA actually goes, and which sub-topics repeat.
Chemistry was among the most-opted domain subjects in CUET UG 2026, taken by roughly 9.5 lakh of the 11.64 lakh candidates who appeared overall.
At that scale, small differences in accuracy move percentiles a long way, and PYQs are the cheapest way to find where your accuracy is soft.
Work through CUET Chemistry question papers, then check yourself against the CUET Chemistry answer key. Papers for your other subjects sit in the CUET previous year question papers archive.
|
Resource |
Use it for |
When |
|
NCERT Class 12 Chemistry Part I and II |
Primary source — most questions trace directly to it |
Throughout |
|
CUET PYQ papers 2022–2026 |
Difficulty calibration and repetition patterns |
December onwards |
|
A dedicated organic chemistry practice book |
Mechanisms and reaction maps |
After NCERT organic units |
|
A physical chemistry numericals book |
Electrochemistry, Kinetics and Solutions problems |
Consolidation phase |
|
Full-length CUET mock tests |
Pace and stamina under the 60-minute clock |
April–May 2027 |
One caution on reference books: JEE and NEET titles cover deleted chapters and pitch difficulty well above CUET level. Use them for extra practice on in-syllabus units only. CUET-specific picks are listed in CUET Chemistry books and the general CUET preparation books guide.
You can download the CUET UG previous year question paper PDFs from the links given below:
| CUET Subjects | CUET 2022 Question Paper with Answers |
| English | |
| Mathematics | |
|
General Aptitude Test |
|
| Political Science | |
| Accountancy | |
| Economics | |
| Geography | |
| History | |
| Sociology | |
| Business Studies | |
| Psychology |
A strong CUET Chemistry score opens B.Sc. Chemistry (Hons.), B.Sc. Life Sciences, B.Sc. Biochemistry, integrated science programmes and several allied-health courses at Delhi University, Banaras Hindu University, Jamia Millia Islamia, Aligarh Muslim University, the University of Allahabad and the University of Hyderabad, among 240+ participating institutions. That list is re-notified every cycle, so confirm your target university's participation in the CUET UG 2027 bulletin.
Subject requirements differ by course and by university — some B.Sc. programmes need Chemistry plus Physics, others Chemistry plus Biology. Confirm the combination before you lock your five subjects, because a paper cannot be added later.
Start with CUET subject list for science students, then the CUET syllabus for B.Sc. and science colleges accepting CUET score. Eligibility rules are consolidated in CUET eligibility criteria, and the full institution list is in CUET universities.
Frequently Asked Questions
How can I effectively prepare for the Chemistry section of CUET 2027?

What is the total number of chapters included in the CUET Chemistry Syllabus?

Is chemistry important for CUET?

How many marks is the CUET exam for Chemistry?

Which chapters are important in chemistry for CUET?

What are some scoring topics in CUET Chemistry?

Which topic is very important in CUET Chemistry?

SHARE