July 27, 2026
What are the types of questions asked in the CUET Physics exam?
Direct Answer:
CUET Physics questions are built around formulas, single-concept applications, statement–assertion pairs, and match-the-following sets.
Because there is negative marking, knowing which chapters repeat and which question types trap students is a direct scoring advantage.
CUET Physics carries 250 marks, and every wrong answer costs you a mark. That combination means practising the right questions matters more than practising more questions.
This guide covers the CUET Physics important questions for 2027, expected chapter-wise weightage based on previous-year trends, question types you will actually face, and how to convert practice into marks.
CUET Physics important questions are the recurring question patterns identified in previous years' papers — the topics that appear in almost every shift and the framing NTA reuses year after year.
They matter for three practical reasons:
Negative marking punishes guesswork. Familiarity with repeated framings reduces the number of questions you attempt on instinct.
You have 60 minutes for 50 questions. That is roughly 72 seconds per question. Recognition speed is a skill, and it comes from repetition on the right question set.
Weightage is uneven. A handful of units contribute the majority of the paper. Practising blindly across the syllabus wastes the limited time you have before the exam.
Before you start solving, confirm the topic boundaries in the CUET Physics syllabus — and note that only Class 12 NCERT content is tested.
If you are unsure about this, read whether the Class 11 syllabus is included in CUET before you spend weeks on Mechanics or Thermodynamics that will not appear.
CUET Physics Important Questions PDF
Unit I: Electrostatics
Q1. Two point charges of +4 μC and −4 μC are placed 0.5 m apart. The magnitude of the electric field at the midpoint of the line joining them is:
(a) 5.76 × 10⁵ N/C
(b) 1.152 × 10⁶ N/
(c) 2.88 × 10⁵ N/C
(d) Zero
Answer: (b) — Both charges produce fields pointing in the same direction at the midpoint, so the magnitudes add rather than cancel. The common trap is choosing (d) by assuming symmetry means zero.
Q2. A charge q is placed at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through one face of the cube is:
(a) q/ε₀
(b) q/6ε₀
(c) q/8ε₀
(d) 6q/ε₀
Answer: (b) — Total flux is q/ε₀ by Gauss's law, shared equally among six faces.
Q3. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery and then disconnected. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is inserted between the plates. The potential difference across the plates:
(a) increases K times
(b) decreases to V/K
(c) remains unchanged
(d) becomes zero
Answer: (b) — Charge is constant once disconnected, capacitance becomes KC, so V = Q/KC.
Q4. An electric dipole of moment 2 × 10⁻⁸ C·m is placed in a uniform electric field of 5 × 10⁵ N/C at an angle of 30°. The torque acting on it is:
(a) 2.5 × 10⁻³ N·m
(b) 5 × 10⁻³ N·m (c) 1 × 10⁻² N·m (d) Zero Answer: (b) — τ = pE sin θ.
Q5. Assertion (A): No work is done in moving a charge along an equipotential surface.
Reason (R): The electric field is always perpendicular to an equipotential surface.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true
Answer: (a) — Force perpendicular to displacement means zero work. Note how the reasoning link, not the truth of each statement, is the actual question.
Unit II: Current Electricity
Q6. If the potential difference across a metallic conductor is doubled at constant temperature, the drift velocity of the electrons:
(a) becomes half
(b) remains the same
(c) doubles
(d) becomes four times
Answer: (c) — v_d = eEτ/m, and E is proportional to V.
Q7. With a rise in temperature, the resistivity of a semiconductor:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases, then decreases
Answer: (b) — More charge carriers are thermally liberated, unlike in a metal.
Q8. In a metre bridge, the null point is obtained at 40 cm from the left end when a 4 Ω resistance is in the left gap. The unknown resistance in the right gap is:
(a) 2.67 Ω
(b) 4 Ω
(c) 6 Ω
(d) 8 Ω
Answer: (c) — R/S = l/(100 − l) gives S = 4 × 60/40.
Q9. Three resistors of 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance is:
(a) 0.5 Ω
(b) 1 Ω
(c) 1.5 Ω
(d) 11 Ω
Answer: (b) — 1/R = 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/6 = 1.
Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Q10. A charged particle moves parallel to a uniform magnetic field. The force experienced by it is:
(a) maximum
(b) qvB
(c) zero
Answer: (c) — F = qvB sin θ, and θ = 0.
Q11. A circular coil of 100 turns and radius 10 cm carries a current of 1 A. The magnetic field at its centre is approximately:
(a) 6.28 × 10⁻⁴ T
(b) 6.28 × 10⁻⁵ T
(c) 1.26 × 10⁻³ T
(d) 3.14 × 10⁻⁴ T
Answer: (a) — B = μ₀nI/2r.
Q12. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to it. If its speed is doubled, the radius of its circular path:
(a) halves
(b) doubles
(c) is unchanged
(d) becomes four times
Answer: (b) — r = mv/qB.
Q13. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one must connect:
(a) a high resistance in series
(b) a low resistance in parallel
(c) a high resistance in parallel
(d) a low resistance in series
Answer: (b) — A shunt diverts most of the current. Reversing this with the voltmeter case is one of the most common errors in this unit.
Q14. The magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is:
(a) large and positive
(b) small and positive
(c) small and negative
(d) zero
Answer: (c)
Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
Learn CUET Physics Important Topics right away!
Q15. Lenz's law is a direct consequence of the law of conservation of:
(a) charge
(b) momentum
(d) mass Answer: (c)
Q16. An LCR series circuit has L = 2 H, C = 32 μF and R = 10 Ω. The angular resonant frequency is:
(a) 100 rad/s
(b) 125 rad/s
(c) 150 rad/s
(d) 250 rad/s
Answer: (b) — ω = 1/√(LC). At resonance, impedance is minimum and equals R.
Q17. A step-up transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 500 turns in the secondary. If the input voltage is 220 V, the output voltage is:
(a) 44 V
(b) 550 V
(c) 1100 V
(d) 2200 V
Answer: (c) — V_s/V_p = N_s/N_p. Remember that the current steps down by the same factor.
Unit V: Electromagnetic Waves
Q18. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in RADAR systems?
(a) Infrared waves
(b) Microwaves
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) Gamma rays
Answer: (b)
Q19. The amplitude of the electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is 6 V/m. The amplitude of the magnetic field is:
(a) 2 × 10⁻⁸ T
(b) 2 × 10⁻⁶ T
(c) 1.8 × 10⁹ T
(d) 6 × 10⁻⁸ T
Answer: (a) — B₀ = E₀/c.
Unit VI: Optics
Q20. An object is placed 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The image is formed at:
(a) 6 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 25 cm
Answer: (c) — 1/v − 1/u = 1/f. Magnification is −2, so the image is real, inverted and magnified.
Q21. The critical angle for a medium of refractive index 1.5 with respect to air is approximately:
(a) 30°
(b) 41.8°
(c) 48.6°
(d) 60°
Answer: (b) — sin C = 1/μ.
Q22. In Young's double slit experiment, if the separation between the slits is doubled, the fringe width:
(a) doubles
(b) halves
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes four times
Answer: (b) — β = λD/d.
Q23. Two thin lenses of power +5 D and −2 D are placed in contact. The focal length of the combination is:
(a) +33.3 cm
(b) −33.3 cm
(c) +14.3 cm
(d) +50 cm
Answer: (a) — Powers add to +3 D, so f = 1/3 m.
Unit VII: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
Q24. In the photoelectric effect, the stopping potential depends on:
(a) the intensity of incident light
(b) the frequency of incident light
(c) the distance of the source
(d) the area of the emitter
Answer: (b) — Intensity affects the number of photoelectrons, not their maximum kinetic energy. This distinction is examined almost every year.
Q25. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V is approximately:
(a) 12.27 Å
(b) 1.23 Å
(c) 0.123 Å
(d) 122.7 Å
Answer: (b) — λ = 12.27/√V Å.
Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei
Q26. If the radius of the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is 0.53 Å, the radius of the second orbit is:
(a) 1.06 Å
(b) 2.12 Å
(c) 0.265 Å
(d) 4.24 Å
Answer: (b) — r ∝ n².
Q27. Since the nuclear radius is given by R = R₀A^(1/3), the density of a nucleus is:
(a) proportional to A
(b) proportional to A^(1/3)
(c) independent of A
(d) inversely proportional to A
Answer: (c) — Mass scales as A while volume scales as A, so density is constant across nuclei.
Unit IX: Electronic Devices
Q28. When a p-n junction diode is forward-biased, the width of the depletion region:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) becomes infinite
Answer: (b)
Q29. Which of the following is a universal logic gate?
(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NOT
(d) NAND
Answer: (d) — Any other gate can be built from NAND alone.
Q30. A Zener diode used as a voltage regulator operates in:
(a) forward bias
(b) reverse bias below breakdown
(c) the reverse breakdown region
(d) an unbiased state
Answer: (c)
Every practice session should mirror the real paper. Based on the pattern in effect since CUET 2025:
|
Component |
Detail |
|
Mode |
Computer Based Test (CBT) |
|
Subject code |
322 (Physics, Section II — Domain) |
|
Number of questions |
50, all compulsory |
|
Duration |
60 minutes |
|
Marks per correct answer |
+5 |
|
Negative marking |
–1 per incorrect answer |
|
Unattempted question |
0 |
|
Maximum marks |
250 |
|
Syllabus base |
Class 12 NCERT Physics (Part I & Part II) |
NTA has not released the CUET UG 2027 notification as of July 2026. Registration is expected around January–February 2027 and the exam around May 2027, based on previous cycles.
Two details students consistently underestimate: there are no optional questions any more, and the CUET marking scheme means a 60% strike rate with heavy guessing can score lower than a careful 45-attempt. Cross-check the subject-level structure on the CUET Physics exam pattern page and the overall three-section structure on the CUET exam pattern page.
Physics has trended harder since 2022, mainly because calculation-heavy questions have replaced straightforward recall.
|
Year |
Reported overall difficulty |
What students found challenging |
|
2026 |
Moderate, with tougher shifts |
Lengthy, calculation-intensive sets; time management was the deciding factor |
|
2025 |
Moderate to difficult |
Application-based and tricky questions beyond direct NCERT lines |
|
2024 |
Moderate to difficult |
Numericals and assertion-reasoning |
|
2023 |
Moderate |
Balanced mix of theory and numericals |
|
2022 |
Easy to moderate |
Largely direct NCERT-based |
CUET UG 2026 was conducted between 11 and 31 May 2026, with Physics scheduled across multiple days and shifts. Student and expert feedback described the paper as moderate overall, though some shifts were reported as lengthy and calculation-heavy.
Indicative difficulty split (internal shift-wise analysis):
|
Level of difficulty |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
|
Easy |
25% |
22% |
32% |
46% |
|
Moderate |
25% |
27% |
29% |
26% |
|
Difficult |
50% |
51% |
39% |
28% |
What this means for 2027: plan for a paper where roughly half the questions need working, not recall. Detailed shift-wise breakdowns are available in the CUET exam analysis archive.
Based on previous-year papers, CUET Physics questions fall into eight recognisable formats. Knowing the format tells you how much time a question deserves.
|
Question type |
What it tests |
Typical time |
|
Definition-based |
Direct NCERT recall |
Under 30 seconds |
|
Concept-based |
Understanding, not memory |
30–45 seconds |
|
Application-based |
Concept applied to a new situation |
60–90 seconds |
|
Numerical |
Formula plus calculation |
90–120 seconds |
|
Figure/diagram-based |
Circuit and ray-diagram reading |
60–90 seconds |
|
Case study / paragraph |
Multiple questions from one stem |
2–3 minutes for the set |
|
Statement / assertion-reasoning |
Precision of both statements |
45–60 seconds |
|
Match the following |
Breadth across a unit |
60 seconds |
Assertion-reasoning is where most marks leak. Both statements can be individually true while the reasoning link is false — and that is exactly the option most students pick.
Practise these separately using the CUET Physics theory questions set. For the format spread across all subjects, see what type of questions are asked in CUET.
NTA does not publish official unit-wise weightage for CUET Physics. The distribution below is derived from previous-year question paper trends (2022–2026) and should be treated as an indicative planning tool, not a guarantee.
|
Unit |
Chapters covered |
Expected questions |
Approx. weightage |
|
Unit I: Electrostatics |
Electric Charges & Fields; Electrostatic Potential & Capacitance |
8–10 |
16–20% |
|
Unit II: Current Electricity |
Current Electricity |
6–8 |
12–16% |
|
Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current & Magnetism |
Moving Charges & Magnetism; Magnetism & Matter |
7–9 |
14–18% |
|
Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction & Alternating Currents |
EMI; Alternating Current |
5–6 |
10–12% |
|
Unit V: Electromagnetic Waves |
Electromagnetic Waves |
2–3 |
4–6% |
|
Unit VI: Optics |
Ray Optics & Optical Instruments; Wave Optics |
6–8 |
12–16% |
|
Unit VII: Dual Nature of Matter & Radiation |
Dual Nature of Radiation & Matter |
3–4 |
6–8% |
|
Unit VIII: Atoms & Nuclei |
Atoms; Nuclei |
3–4 |
6–8% |
|
Unit IX: Electronic Devices |
Semiconductor Electronics |
4–5 |
8–10% |
Sequence your revision using the CUET Physics important topics breakdown.
If you have four weeks or less, work in this order:
Electrostatics and Current Electricity — the largest combined block, and heavily formula-driven. Start with CUET Physics Electrostatics questions and the focused Electric Charges and Fields question set.
Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism — consistently high weightage, and questions are usually single-step once the direction convention is clear.
Optics — strong repeat value, particularly mirror and lens formula applications. Work through the CUET Physics Ray Optics PYQs.
Electronic Devices — small chapter, disproportionate return. Diode and transistor configuration questions repeat almost verbatim.
Atoms, Nuclei and Dual Nature — low question count, but the formulas are few and fixed, so the marks-per-hour ratio is excellent.
Keep the CUET Physics important formula sheet and CUET Physics notes open while solving, rather than switching to the textbook mid-set.
The syllabus is Class 12 NCERT, so NCERT stays your primary text. Supplementary books are for question variety, not new theory.
|
Book |
Author / Publisher |
Best used for |
|
Class 12 Physics (Part I & II) |
NCERT |
Core theory and in-text examples |
|
Concepts of Physics |
H.C. Verma |
Conceptual clarity on weak chapters |
|
Objective Physics |
D.C. Pandey |
MCQ practice volume |
|
CUET UG Comprehensive Series for Physics |
SuperGrads |
CUET-pattern question sets |
|
Together With NTA CUET Physics |
Rachna Sagar |
Additional chapter-wise practice |
A caution worth stating plainly: H.C. Verma and D.C. Pandey go well beyond CUET's depth in places.
Use them selectively for chapters you find shaky, not as a full second syllabus. Compare options on the CUET Physics books page and the broader CUET preparation books list.
Solving questions and improving from them are different activities. A workable cycle:
Step 1 — Solve 15–20 questions from one unit, untimed. Build accuracy before speed.
Step 2 — Repeat the same unit under a 20-minute timer. Speed under constraint is a separate skill.
Step 3 — Classify every error. Conceptual gap, formula slip, calculation error, or misread question. The fix differs completely for each, and students who skip this step keep repeating the same mistake.
Step 4 — Attempt a full 50-question set weekly using CUET Physics mock tests and previous year question papers.
Step 5 — Review with the answer key. Use the CUET Physics answer key to check reasoning, not just the final option.
Ten to twenty questions daily, reviewed properly, outperform fifty questions solved and abandoned. For a full timetable, use the CUET study plan.
If you are reattempting after 2026, the CUET preparation strategy for droppers addresses the specific problem of plateaued scores. A subject-level roadmap is available on how to prepare for CUET Physics.
There is no single target score, and any article giving you one is guessing. Your target depends on the university, the programme, the category and the year's cut-off — all of which move.
What you can do is work backwards:
Check the previous year's CUET cut-off for your shortlisted programmes, and the CUET DU cut-off if Delhi University is on your list.
Understand how raw marks become a percentile through CUET normalisation, then map your practice scores using CUET marks vs percentile.
Set a Physics-specific benchmark using what is a good score in CUET Physics is and the overall guide to what a good score in CUET is.
An important distinction: qualifying CUET does not by itself make you eligible for a specific course. Each university sets its own eligibility, subject-combination and minimum-marks requirements. Verify both the CUET eligibility criteria and your target university's own rules on the CUET participating universities page before finalising your subject choices.
If B.Sc. Physics or an allied programme is the goal, confirm your subject combination against the CUET syllabus for B.Sc. and the CUET subject list for Science students.
Attempting all 50 questions regardless of confidence. With –1 marking, five wild guesses cost you 5 marks and gain nothing on average.
Skipping diagram-based questions. They look time-consuming but are often single-step once labelled.
Studying Class 11 chapters. CUET Physics is Class 12 NCERT only.
Treating assertion-reasoning as two separate true/false checks. The reasoning link is the actual question.
Practising only high-weightage units. A 3-question unit like Dual Nature still carries 15 marks — more than the gap that usually separates admission from waitlist.
Reviewing mocks by score alone instead of by error category.
More Resources to Explore
Frequently Asked Questions
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