August 14, 2026
Looking for the SET 2024 question paper? Symbiosis doesn’t release the official paper publicly, so this page provides a memory-based SET 2024 paper (slot-wise) plus a section-wise analysis of Quant, English, GK and LR difficulty, topic split, and good attempts. Scroll for sample questions and download the PDF.
The Symbiosis SET 2024 Question Paper had 60 questions for 60 marks, to be solved in 60 minutes, with no negative marking and no sectional time limits.
It was conducted in two slots May 5 and May 11, 2024 in computer-based mode.
The overall difficulty was easy to moderate, with General Knowledge acting as the score differentiator.
If you are preparing for the upcoming Symbiosis Entrance Test, this paper is the single most reliable preview of what awaits you. Here's the complete section-wise breakdown, memory-based questions, good attempts, and what toppers did differently.
Do you want to practice the sample 2024 SET question paper? Here is the direct button to download and practice the paper:
The SET 2024 question paper contained 60 questions worth 60 marks, to be completed in 60 minutes. It had four sections:
The exam was computer-based, had no negative marking and no sectional time limits, allowing students to move freely between sections.
| Section | Question Type | Marks | Difficulty (2024) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Quantitative Ability | 16 | 16 | Easy to Moderate |
| English (Verbal Ability) | 16 | 16 | Easy |
| General Knowledge | 16 | 16 | Moderate to Difficult |
| Analytical & Logical Reasoning | 12 | 12 | Easy |
| Total | 60 | 60 | Easy to Moderate |
Key features of the paper:
For a detailed breakdown of how this pattern has evolved year over year, see the SET Exam Pattern guide.
Check out the section wise breakdown of the Symbiosis SET 2024 question paper:
Quant in the SET 2024 sample question paper set was rated easy to moderate, but two things caught students off guard.
First, Data Interpretation appeared for the first time, contributing roughly 2–4 questions depending on the slot.
Second, a couple of questions (one salary-based problem and one on profit and loss) reportedly had errors in the options the kind of situation the exam authority typically reviews and corrects during final scoring.
The table below maps roughly how the 16 Quant questions were distributed across topics.
Arithmetic clearly dominated, which means your Class 8–10 fundamentals matter more here than advanced math. If your arithmetic is fast, this section becomes a 10-minute job.
Good attempt: 14+ questions
| Topic | Approx. Questions |
|---|---|
| Arithmetic (Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, TSD, Ratio) | 7 |
| Number System (LCM/HCF) | 3 |
| Data Interpretation (new in 2024) | 2–4 |
| Geometry | 2 |
| Algebra | 1 |
| Modern Mathematics | 1 |
English was the easiest section of the paper many well-prepared students finished it in just 8–10 minutes.
The questions leaned heavily on grammar mechanics and vocabulary rather than reading comprehension, which rewards students who revise idioms, proverbs, and commonly confused spellings.
Here's how the 16 English questions were roughly spread.
Good attempt: 14–15 questions
| Topic | Approx. Questions |
|---|---|
| Grammar (Tenses, Conjunctions, Prepositions) | 7 |
| Vocabulary, Synonyms & Spellings | 5 |
| Proverbs & Idioms | 3 |
| Figures of Speech / Verbal Reasoning | 1 |
Practise this section with dedicated SET English question papers to build the 8-minute speed toppers achieved.
GK was the dominating section of the SET 2024 question and answer set the one where scores fluctuated the most and, effectively, where ranks were decided.
With no negative marking, everyone attempted all 16 questions; the difference was accuracy.
The split below shows why last-minute current affairs cramming alone doesn't work for SET: static GK carried roughly twice the weight of current affairs in 2024.
Questions ranged from science facts (Earth–Moon distance, gravity) to sports and Indian polity (President/Vice-President).
Good attempt: 7–10 for average students; 12+ separated the toppers
| Topic | Approx. Questions |
|---|---|
| Static GK (Science, Polity, Geography, Sports) | 11 |
| Current Affairs | 5 |
LR stayed true to previous years easy to moderate, dominated by standard puzzle types. Because it has only 12 questions but familiar patterns, this is where disciplined practice converts directly into marks.
The topic spread below is a near-perfect checklist for your LR revision. If you can solve each of these seven types in under a minute, this section is essentially banked.
Good attempt: 10+ questions
| Topic | Approx. Questions |
|---|---|
| Coding-Decoding | 3 |
| Verbal Reasoning / Statement-Assumption | 2 |
| Clocks & Calendars | 2 |
| Ascending/Descending Order | 2 |
| Series Completion | 1 |
| Blood Relations | 1 |
| Linear Arrangement | 1 |
Strengthen these topics with structured SET exam notes covering each reasoning type.
An "attempt" and a "score" are different things in a no-negative-marking exam you should attempt all 60, but your accurate attempts decide your campus.
Based on the 2024 paper, here are the benchmarks that mattered.
| Metric | SET 2024 Benchmark |
|---|---|
| Good overall attempt (with accuracy) | 44+ questions |
| Good score | 41+ |
| Safe score for SCMS Pune | 50+ |
| English + LR combined target | 24–26 correct |
| Realistic GK target | 8–12 correct |
Because Slot 2 was easier, cutoffs climbed compared to what a Slot 1-only paper would have produced.
The table below shows score cutoffs campus-wise use it to reverse-engineer your target, not just to check eligibility.
| Campus | Cutoff (Score out of 60) |
|---|---|
| SCMS Pune (most preferred) | 50–55+ |
| SCMS Bengaluru | 45+ |
| SCMS Noida | 45+ |
| Other Symbiosis campuses | 40–45 |
Below 50 made Pune difficult in 2024; Bengaluru and Noida remained excellent alternatives depending on your location preference.
Explore all courses offered through the Symbiosis SET exam before locking your campus preference order, and understand how SET seat allotment works after results.
This SET 2024 Question Paper-style set spans all four sections in roughly the same proportion as the real exam, so you get a fair sense of the full paper rather than just one section.
1. Choose the word closest in meaning to "Ephemeral":
(a) Permanent
(b) Fleeting
(c) Massive
(d) Loud
Answer: (b) Fleeting
2. Fill in the blank: "By the time we reached the station, the train ___ already left."
(a) has
(b) have
(c) had
(d) having
Answer: (c) had — past perfect tense is required for an action completed before another past action.
3. Choose the correctly spelled word:
(a) Occurance
(b) Occurrence
(c) Ocurrence
(d) Occurrance
Answer: (b) Occurrence
4. Identify the figure of speech in: "The classroom was a zoo during lunch break."
(a) Simile
(b) Metaphor
(c) Alliteration
(d) Personification
Answer: (b) Metaphor — a direct comparison without using "like" or "as."
4. Choose the correct idiom to complete: "She decided to ___ and admit her mistake."
(a) beat around the bush
(b) come clean
(c) let the cat out
(d) hit the sack
Answer: (b) come clean
5. A shopkeeper marks an item 40% above cost price and sells it after a 15% discount. What is his profit percentage?
(a) 15%
(b) 19%
(c) 21%
(d) 25%
Answer: (b) 19% — Marked price = 1.4 × CP; Selling price = 0.85 × 1.4 × CP = 1.19 × CP → 19% profit.
6. If a dataset shows sales grew from 200 units to 260 units in a year, what is the percentage growth?
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 32%
(d) 60%
Answer: (b) 30% — Growth = (60/200) × 100.
7. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 24. What is the largest number?
(a) 26
(b) 28
(c) 30
(d) 32
Answer: (b) 28 — Numbers are 20, 22, 24, 26, 28; average = 24.
8. A sum of ₹12,000 is invested at 10% simple interest per annum. What is the interest earned in 2 years?
(a) ₹1,200
(b) ₹2,000
(c) ₹2,400
(d) ₹2,600
Answer: (c) ₹2,400 — SI = (P × R × T)/100 = (12000 × 10 × 2)/100.
9. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5. If their sum is 96, what is the smaller number?
(a) 30
(b) 32
(c) 36
(d) 40
Answer: (c) 36 — 3 parts = (3/8) × 96.
10. Which Indian classical dance form originated in Tamil Nadu?
(a) Kathak
(b) Odissi
(c) Bharatanatyam
(d) Manipuri
Answer: (c) Bharatanatyam
11. The Reserve Bank of India was established in which year?
(a) 1935
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1969
Answer: (a) 1935
12. Which is the largest freshwater lake in India?
(a) Chilika Lake
(b) Wular Lake
(c) Dal Lake
(d) Sambhar Lake
Answer: (b) Wular Lake, located in Jammu & Kashmir.
13. Which Indian committee is associated with banking sector reforms in the 1990s?
(a) Narasimham Committee
(b) Chelliah Committee
(c) Rangarajan Committee
(d) Tarapore Committee
Answer: (a) Narasimham Committee
14. The headquarters of the United Nations is located in:
(a) Geneva
(b) The Hague
(c) New York
(d) Vienna
Answer: (c) New York
15. If TABLE is coded as UBCMF, how is CHAIR coded (using the same letter-shift logic)?
(a) DIBJS
(b) DJBKS
(c) DIBKS
(d) EJCLT
Answer: (a) DIBJS — each letter is shifted forward by one place in the alphabet.
16. Complete the series: 3, 6, 12, 24, ?, 96
(a) 36
(b) 42
(c) 48
(d) 54
Answer: (c) 48 — each term is double the previous term.
17. Pointing to a photograph, Raj said, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is the girl related to Raj?
(a) Sister
(b) Cousin
(c) Niece
(d) Daughter
Answer: (a) Sister — "my grandfather's only son" is Raj's father, making the girl Raj's sister.
18. If today is Wednesday, what day will it be 17 days from now?
(a) Friday
(b) Saturday
(c) Sunday
(d) Monday
Answer: (b) Saturday — 17 mod 7 = 3; Wednesday + 3 days = Saturday.
19. Arrange the following in a logical (ascending) order based on general knowledge: Village, Country, District, State
(a) Village, District, State, Country
(b) Village, State, District, Country
(c) District, Village, State, Country
(d) Village, Country, District, State
Answer: (a) Village, District, State, Country
Most students solve a past paper once and move on. That's a waste of the best resource you have. Here's the 3-pass method our faculty recommends:
Recommended time allocation (based on how 2024 toppers moved through the paper):
| Section | Time | Logic |
|---|---|---|
| English | 8–10 min | Easiest; bank marks early |
| Logical Reasoning | 12–14 min | Familiar patterns; high accuracy zone |
| Quantitative Ability | 22–25 min | Needs calculation time, incl. DI |
| General Knowledge | 8–10 min | You either know it or you don't don't overthink |
| Review | 5 min | Recheck marked questions |
With no negative marking, every blank answer in 2024 was a mark voluntarily surrendered. Attempt all 60, always.
GK answers don't improve with staring. Students who spent 15+ minutes on GK ran out of time in Quant.
It did in 2024 patterns evolve. Prepare for the paper SET can set, not just the paper it has set.
A few Quant questions had option errors. Toppers flagged them mentally, moved on, and trusted the official review process. Check the SET exam answer key process to understand how corrections are handled.
Difficulty varied across slots; your percentile, not your raw score alone, tells the real story.
The Symbiosis SET 2024 Question Paper confirmed what makes this exam distinctive: it isn't hard, it's fast.
Sixty questions in sixty minutes rewards students who bank English and LR quickly, hold their nerve in Quant, and treat GK as a year-long habit rather than a last-week sprint.
Use the memory-based paper with the 3-pass method, benchmark yourself against the 44+ attempt / 41+ score standard, and set your target by campus 50+ if Pune is the dream.
Your next step: take a full-length mock on the exact SET pattern and see where you stand today.
Frequently Asked Questions
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