Updated On : May 26, 2023
Reader's Digest - Hey there! Exciting news for all aspiring CLAT 2024 candidates! With the announcement of the CLAT 2024 Exam Date, it's time to gear up for the ultimate test of legal reasoning skills. Wondering what kind of intriguing questions await you this time? This blog explores all the types of legal reasoning questions in the CLAT Exam.
In the CLAT Exam, legal reasoning is a critical component that tests your ability to understand legal principles, identify relevant facts, and draw logical conclusions.
This section does not require you to be well-versed in legal jargon. However, it will be beneficial to understand the current legal and a fair idea of its application.
We have answered the most common queries about the Legal Reasoning section in CLAT 2024:
Big update! The Consortium has officially announced the CLAT 2024 Exam Date. Stay tuned for more exciting news and updates!
The Legal Reasoning Questions for CLAT 2024 test your legal reasoning, research aptitude, and problem-solving ability. The Legal Knowledge section is divided mainly into three sections:
As per the new exam pattern of CLAT, here are the sample Legal Reasoning Questions for CLAT 2024.
Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it. Practising is the best way to crack Legal Reasoning Questions for CLAT 2024 with a high score.
It has to be noticed that the arguments that would want to disprove the essentiality of the situation can be constructed very easily, as the ground definition of the essential religious practices test puts its faith in practices that bear a very intense and proximate connection to the basic tenants of religion or are rather integral to the religion, and any activity would be redundancy if it does not bear such a close connection with the religion (including practices which may be superstitious) and that may be deemed extraneous.
The limitation of the essential religious practices test- if the test is applied only on the grounds of the antiquity of customs, without any regard to the social consciousness of the people in present-day society, the courts will alienate themselves. Such arguments in favour of upheaval wouldn’t be considerate of the nuance of the conditions and situation of the society and be very far away from the ground reality of the situation that is existent in the present day.
The Court’s applicability of the essential religious practices test, as seen in the initial stages of the Durgah Committee, needs major changes or amendments regarding the doctrine's applicability. Suppose a practice is for commercial gain or a secular transaction but is still based on religious grounds. In that case, it can still be essential, despite the economic character that it has always had since immemorial or has recently assumed, according to the Shirur Matt case. Still, the question to be analyzed is if just because a practice is a relatively modern discovery or not a direct off-shoot of prescribed religious rites in ancient texts and practices (on whatever commercial grounds it may have been implemented), can such a practice be disregarded due to the Court’s definition of perceived antiquity?
A way forward, in the evolving context of jurisprudence, would be to have the essential religious practices test included within it or replace it with a community conscience/sensitivity test, which again would include the core principles of the essential practices test, but without its rigidity and a tiding of community perception, wherein any practice whatever it might be will be looked upon, not only from the perspective of redundancy to the ultimate aim of the religion but also how a certain practice has evolved into forming a reasonably important part.
It is also to be noted that the aforementioned change, if applied, would not mean that the Court is giving into the majoritarian argument, i.e. protecting the right to burst firecrackers only because it’s a well-established practice. Rather, such a change in the doctrine must be seen through the lens of non-interference with custom and practice, which has been established as an integral part of the society, irrespective of the time frame of its exigency and any economic impetus behind it. Whatever test is applied must be sparingly in adherence to the secularist principle of non-interference. Still, if any inherent bias in practice is being claimed, the social/community conscience test, according to the article, is better in terms of application.
Follow expert-curated CLAT Legal Reasoning Preparation Tips for smooth preparation.
Q 1. Based strictly on the essential religious practices test, answer the following question. A city has recently passed a law that prohibits the use of loudspeakers from 10 PM to 6 AM. However, this is causing an issue for the local Sikh community who want to perform Amrit Vela, a pre-dawn prayer, which traditionally uses loudspeakers to spread the prayer to the whole community. Does this law infringe upon their right to religion?
a. No, because the use of loudspeakers is not essential to Sikhism.
b. Yes, because Amrit Vela is an essential practice of Sikhism, which has been traditionally performed with the use of loudspeakers.
c. No, because the law does not specifically target religious activities, but is a general regulation.
d. None of the above.
Answer: b. Yes, because Amrit Vela is an essential practice of Sikhism, which has been traditionally performed with the use of loudspeakers.
Q 2. Based on the community conscience test, answer the following question. A city has recently passed a law that prohibits the use of loudspeakers from 10 PM to 6 AM. However, this is causing an issue for the local Sikh community who want to perform Amrit Vela, a pre-dawn prayer, which traditionally uses loudspeakers to spread the prayer to the whole community. Does this law infringe upon their right to religion?
a. No, because the use of loudspeakers is not essential to Sikhism.
b. Yes, because the prayer is an integral part of community conscience and thus the prohibition disrupts the community conscience.
c. No, because the law does not specifically target religious activities, but is a general regulation.
d. None of the above.
Answer: b. Yes, because the prayer is an integral part of community conscience and thus the prohibition disrupts the community conscience.
Q 3. The city of Metropolis recently passed a law mandating that all butchers shops be closed on Sundays. This decision is being challenged by the Jewish community, claiming it infringes on their right to prepare Kosher meals, which involve the fresh slaughter of chickens. Based on the essential religious practices doctrine, does this law infringe on their right to religion?
a. No, as the law does not specifically target the Jewish community or their practices.
b. Yes, because fresh slaughter is an essential part of preparing a Kosher meal.
c. No, because the preparation of Kosher meals does not require fresh slaughter on Sundays specifically.
d. None of the above.
Answer: b. Yes, because fresh slaughter is an essential part of preparing a Kosher meal.
Q 4. A city council has recently passed a law stating that all public gathering of over 30 people should be approved by the city council. This law is being challenged by the Christian community, who claim it infringes on their right to hold Sunday mass. Based on the community conscience test, does this law infringe upon their right to religion?
a. Yes, because Sunday mass is an integral part of the Christian community's conscience.
b. No, because the law does not specifically target the Christian community or their practices.
c. No, because Sunday mass can still be held with less than 30 people.
d. None of the above.
Answer: a. Yes, because Sunday mass is an integral part of the Christian community's conscience.
Q 5. A city council has recently passed a law stating that all public gathering of over 30 people should be approved by the city council. This law is being challenged by the Muslim community, who claim it infringes on their right to hold Friday prayer in the mosque. Based on the essential religious practices test, does this law infringe upon their right to religion?
a. Yes, because Friday prayer in the mosque is an essential religious practice in Islam.
b. No, because the law does not specifically target the Muslim community or their practices.
c. No, because Friday prayers can still be held with less than 30 people.
d. None of the above.
Answer: a. Yes, because Friday prayer in the mosque is an essential religious practice in Islam.
Mistakes may operate upon a contract in two ways. It may, firstly, defeat the consent altogether that the parties are supposed to have given; that is to say, the consent is unreal. Secondly, the mistake may mislead the parties about the purpose they contemplated.
Where both parties are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void. However, an erroneous opinion as to the value of the things which form the subject –matter of the agreement is not deemed a mistake as a matter of fact. An agreement upon the same thing in the same sense is known as true consent or consensus ad idem, and it is the root of every contract. Two or more people are told to consent when they agree upon the same thing in the same sense.
A contract is said to be void because of a mistake when:
A contract is not void because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in force in India, but a mistake as to a law not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of fact.
A mistake as to identity occurs when one of the parties represents himself to be some person other than he really is. There can be a mistake of identity only when a person bearing a particular identity exists within the plaintiff's knowledge and the plaintiff intends to deal with him only. If the name the accused assumes is fictitious, there will be no mistake of identity.
Q 1. Paul, unaware of the recent death of his old friend George, agrees to purchase George's vintage car from George's brother, Carl. Both Paul and Carl were unaware of George's death at the time of the agreement. What is the status of this contract?
A. The agreement is valid as it was made in good faith.
B. The agreement is not void because George's presence wasn't a necessary condition.
C. The agreement is void due to mutual mistake of fact essential to the contract.
D. The contract remains valid as the car exists, despite George's death.
Answer: C. The agreement is void due to mutual mistake of fact essential to the contract.
Q 2. Posing as his twin brother, Tim, Rick entered into a contract with a company that intended to contract specifically with Tim. Is the contract valid?
A. Yes, the contract is valid because Rick and Tim are identical twins.
B. No, the contract is not valid because there was a mistake as to the identity of the person the company intended to contract with.
C. Yes, the contract is valid because the company should have verified the identity before making the contract.
D. No, the contract is not valid because Tim and Rick committed fraud.
Answer: B. No, the contract is not valid because there was a mistake as to the identity of the person the company intended to contract with.
Check Here: How to Score 25+ in English for CLAT 2024?
Q 3. Tom buys a plot of land believing it to be a gold mine. It turns out that the land has no gold. Is the contract void due to mistake?
A. Yes, the contract is void because Tom made a mistake regarding the value of the land.
B. No, the contract is not void because this was a mistake as to the value, not as to a matter of fact.
C. Yes, the contract is void because Tom was misled about the potential of the land. D. No, the contract is not void because Tom should have conducted a survey before buying.
Answer: B. No, the contract is not void because this was a mistake as to the value, not as to a matter of fact.
Q 4. Sophia, pretending to be a famous artist, sells a painting to Jennifer. Jennifer later discovers the truth. What is the status of the contract?
A. The contract is valid because Sophia didn't explicitly claim that she painted the painting.
B. The contract is void because there was a mistake as to the identity of the artist.
C. The contract is valid because Jennifer should have verified the identity of the artist.
D. The contract is void because Sophia deceived Jennifer.
Answer: B. The contract is void because there was a mistake as to the identity of the artist.
Q 5. A person sells a horse, believing it to be his, to another person. However, the horse actually belongs to a third person, and both parties were unaware of this fact. What is the status of this contract?
A. The contract is void because both parties were mistaken about an essential fact to the agreement.
B. The contract is valid because the buyer now owns the horse.
C. The contract is void because the seller did not have the right to sell the horse.
D. The contract is valid because both parties agreed on the sale.
Answer: A. The contract is void because both parties were mistaken about an essential fact to the agreement.
The validity of a contract The first requirement of a valid contract is an agreement. Every promise and set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an agreement. When a person to whom the proposal is made defines his assent, the proposal is said to be accepted. A proposal, when accepted, becomes a promise. An agreement is valid when one party makes a proposal or offer to another party, which signifies his assent. The following are required for a valid agreement. (1) The agreement must be between two persons. It must be between an offeror and an offeree; whoever accepts the offer becomes an acceptor. Both these parties should be different, as one cannot agree with himself. (2) Both the offeror and offeree, in the same sense and at the same time, should understand the agreement. Sometimes, there may be invitations to offer in case of advertisement of products.
An agreement to mature into a contract must create a legal obligation as per the provision of contract laws that is a duty enforceable by law. Any agreement which does not create any enforceability, i.e. where the parties do not have a right to approach the court of law to avail legal remedy for breach of contract, will not be a contract. This is displayed through the intention to enter into a legally binding contract different from a mere promise. Parties must know that if any of them fails to fulfil his/her part of the promise, he/she will be liable for the failure of the contract. Consideration is described as something in return. It is also vital for the validity of the contract. A promise to do something or to provide something without anything in return will not be enforceable at law and, therefore, will not be valid. Consideration need not be in kind or cash. A contract without consideration is a wagering contract or betting. Besides, the consideration must also be lawful. There is no requirement for these principles to only apply to natural persons; they are equally applicable to corporations that qualify as legal persons.
Q1. Company X wishes to order 500 units of product Y from Manufacturer Z. They send an email to Z stating their intentions. Z replies with a quotation for the price per unit. Company X agrees to the price quoted. In this situation:
a) Company X is the offeror, and Manufacturer Z is the offeree. Manufacturer Z's quotation constitutes an agreement.
b) Manufacturer Z is the offeror, and Company X is the offeree. Company X's agreement to the price constitutes an agreement.
c) Company X is the offeror, and Manufacturer Z is the offer. As the acceptance was not conveyed initially, no agreement is constituted.
d) Manufacturer Z is the offeror, and Company X is the offeree. As the acceptance was not conveyed initially, no agreement is constituted.
Answer: b) Manufacturer Z is the offeror, and Company X is the offeree. Company X's agreement to the price constitutes an agreement.
Q2. In a similar situation to the one mentioned above, after Manufacturer Z sent the quotation, Company X did not respond. However, Manufacturer Z still shipped the 500 units and is now demanding payment. Determine the legal position.
a) Company X's initial intent signifies an interest in making an offer, and a contract is formed.
b) Manufacturer Z's quotation is an acceptance of Company X's offer, and thus a contract is formed.
c) Company X should not have requested such large quantities of product Y initially.
d) Company X did not respond to Manufacturer Z's quotation, hence never accepted the offer.
Answer: d) Company X did not respond to Manufacturer Z's quotation, hence never accepted the offer.
Q3. Company X noticed an online advertisement from Manufacturer Z stating product Y is being sold at a discount. They ordered 500 units, but were then told that the discount was no longer available. Decide.
a) Company X should receive the product Y at the discounted price as a contract bound Manufacturer Z.
b) Company X should not receive the product Y at the discounted price as no contract had been formed.
c) Company X should receive the product Y at the discounted price because they accepted the offer that was publicly displayed.
d) Company X should not receive the product Y at the discounted price because the advertisement was not an offer but only an invitation to offer.
Answer: d) Company X should not receive the product Y at the discounted price because the advertisement was not an offer but only an invitation to offer.
Q4. Company X, a conglomerate, owns both a paper corporation and a publishing corporation. The paper corporation is experiencing financial difficulties and requires immediate funding for its operations. The publishing corporation, also owned by Company X, offers a loan.
a) This is a valid contract as there are two legal entities involved.
b) The same entity controls both corporations. There are no two parties involved, and the contract is invalid.
c) The contract is valid as an offer and acceptance were provided.
d) None of the above.
Answer: b) The same entity controls both corporations. There are no two parties involved, and the contract is invalid.
Q5. Company X wishes to buy a specific software from Developer Y. Company X, however, just states their intention to buy a software without specifying the type. Developer Y assumes that they are talking about another software that they develop. Company X agrees to buy, and Developer Y agrees to sell. Decide.
a) This is a valid contract as the parties had the same thing in mind, i.e., software.
b) This is an invalid contract as the parties did not have the same thing in mind while contracting.
c) This is a valid contract, as the type of software is immaterial.
d) The law should not take note of trifles.
Answer: b) This is an invalid contract as the parties did not have the same thing in mind while contracting.
Q6. During a meeting, the CEO of Company X tells one of his employees, "If you manage to close the Johnson deal, I'll give you a promotion." The employee successfully closes the deal, but the CEO later refuses the promotion. The employee sues the CEO.
a) This is a valid contract as there was an intention to enter into a legally binding contract.
b) This is an invalid contract, as there was no intention to enter into a legally binding contract.
c) This is an enforceable contract, as there was an intention to enter into a legally binding contract.
d) This is an unenforceable contract, as there was no intention to enter into a legally binding contract.
Answer: b) This is an invalid contract, as there was no intention to enter into a legally binding contract.
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The Indian Penal Code, which was in force in many states when the Constitution was made, contained more than one offence punishable by the death penalty. The Constitution makers formulated some articles with reference to the death penalty. Article 72 allowed President and Governor to show clemency to convicts sentenced to the death penalty. Article 134 provided for appeal to Supreme Court if High Court awarded a convict the death penalty after reversing a trial court judgement. But we shall not overlook the reality that the constitution makers could not be expected to go into the various aspects of each punishment provided in the penal statutes which were then in force. When they shaped Article 13 of the Constitution, it declared that any law in force at the time when it came into effect that was violative of any of the fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution was void.
During the first five years after the Constitution was made, the death penalty remained the normal punishment for murder. If a session’s judge was to depart from it, he was bound to set out reasons for not awarding it to a convict for murder. Cr. P.C. was amended in 1973 by which Parliament directed that special reasons shall be shown if the Sessions Judge imposed the death penalty on the convicted person. This change was made evident to convey that the normal punishment for murder was life, and the death penalty was only an exception.
The situation was again changed subsequently. This time it was not because of any legislative exercise but because of the pronouncement of the majority judgment by the Supreme Court of India in the Bachan Singh case in 1979. Most judges declared that the death penalty could be imposed only in the “rarest of rare cases in which the alternative sentence of life is unquestionably foreclosed”. Thereafter, that became the law as binding on all courts in India because of Article 141. However, this drastic power curtailment to impose capital punishment remained on paper. The Supreme Court began to dilute the rigour of the condition imposed in the Bachan Singh case. What is meant by the words “rarest of rare etc. etc.” The judges of High Courts and the Supreme Court used to employ semantics whenever and wherever they wanted to impose the death penalty. All they were required to do was use superlative degree words such as “brutal, atrocious, etc.” and then say, "I/we hold that this is one of the rarest rare cases”. It became a matter of luck for an accused, depending vastly on the mindset or philosophy of the individual judges.
[Extracted from Justice KT Thomas on “Why Bachan Singh needs to be revisited”]
Q 1. Referencing the debate around the constitutionality of the death penalty, a lawyer argues that while the Constitution makers included references to the death penalty, the interpretation and application of these provisions have evolved over time. As a judge, you are to decide. Which argument would you accept?
A. The interpretation of the Constitution's provisions on the death penalty must reflect contemporary understandings of justice and human rights.
B. The references to the death penalty in the Constitution demonstrate that it is an acceptable form of punishment.
C. The death penalty is constitutional, as it serves justice to the perpetrators of brutal crimes.
D. The constitutionality of the death penalty has to be tested only for violation of fundamental rights under Article 13.
Q 2. In a case involving a murder due to a property dispute, the convicted murderer's lawyer pleads for a lesser sentence on the basis of a crime of passion. As the judge, what would be your sentence?
A. Sentence the convict to life imprisonment as the ordinarily given punishment for murder.
B. Sentence the convict to death, given the gravity of the crime.
C. Consider the crime of passion as a mitigating factor and reduce the sentence.
D. Sentence the convict to death as the only suitable punishment for murder.
Q 3. In a case where the son of a murder victim takes revenge on the murderer's son, what sentence would be most appropriate, if no special circumstances are present?
A. Award the death penalty, without requirement to assign special reasons.
B. Award a life sentence, without requirement to assign special reasons.
C. Award the death penalty due to the cold-blooded nature of the murder.
D. Award a life sentence, recognizing the motivation behind the murder.
Q 4. In a case of self-defense resulting in death, how should the court sentence the defendant?
A. Sentence the defendant to death, the ordinarily given punishment.
B. Give a reduced sentence of 7 years, considering the act of self-defense.
C. Sentence the defendant to death despite the special circumstances.
D. None of the above.
Q 5. Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following statements best reflects the evolution of the death penalty law?
A. The death penalty law has evolved to minimize arbitrary application.
B. The death penalty law has evolved towards making the death penalty the rule.
C. The death penalty law has evolved towards making the death penalty the exception.
D. The death penalty law has not significantly evolved since the inception of the Constitution.
Here are a few legal reasoning questions for CLAT exam preparation. These questions are picked from the Previous Year's CLAT Question Papers.
Try answering these questions to test your legal reasoning ability and preparation levels.
The COVID-19 pandemic has taken the world hostage in less than four months. The global economy has been hit the hardest with governments implementing stringent policies, including lockdowns, to control the coronavirus outbreak. Today's pandemic presents unprecedented challenges and impediments to businesses conducting their normal operations. The lockdown worldwide has caused delays in the performance of contracts and transactions. Now, the question arises whether the current situation can enable parties to a contract to alter their obligations with non-compliance of terms neither regarded as a "default committed by any party" nor a "breach of contract"? There are certain well-accepted practices for dealing with such extraordinary situations in commercial transactions, including force majeure & material adverse effect (MAE) clauses. Determining the circumstances covered by the force majeure clause contained in a contract is essential.
Provisions of force majeure often cover natural disasters like hurricanes, floods, and earthquakes as "acts of God." Other covered events may include war, terrorism, civil disorder, fire, disease, medical epidemics or by reasons of applicable laws or regulations. Broadly, the Courts have interpreted the term "Force Majeure" as an event that can neither be anticipated nor controlled by either of the contracting parties. A force majeure clause applies in the context of ongoing contractual arrangements. In contrast, an MAE or material adverse change (MAC) clause applies to the allocation of risk in transactions before their closure or completion. A pandemic and related consequences, such as government action, is a type of event covered by a force majeure clause. However, its impact on the affected party's ability to perform its contractual obligations may vary depending on contractual terms. It is common for force majeure clauses to specify the impact of the event or circumstances in question for the clause to be triggered. References may be made, for example, to the event or circumstances having "prevented", "hindered", or "delayed" performance. These terms require different levels of impact on performance before a party can claim recourse to these clauses. In other words, the force majeure and MAC clauses act as an exception to what would otherwise be treated as a breach of contract.
Certain contracts may state that the contract may automatically be terminated if a force majeure clause is applied. On the other hand, some contracts may even state that the duty to fulfil the contractual obligation may be suspended for a certain period of time. If the force majeure event is not curbed or treated even after such time, then eventually, the contract may be terminated. Though there cannot be a one-size-fits-all solution to this question, it depends upon how the force majeure clause is worded in a specific contract, and in the absence of the same, applicable laws related to the same will be required to be taken into consideration.
[Excerpt from Business Today, by Ranjana Roy Gawai, April 17, 2020]
Q 1. If a contract does not specifically include pandemics under the force majeure clause, but includes "acts of God," could the COVID-19 pandemic be considered under this clause?
a) Yes, as a pandemic can be considered an "act of God."
b) No, because pandemics must be specifically mentioned.
c) Yes, if the impact of the pandemic has "prevented", "hindered", or "delayed" performance.
d) Both a) and c)
Answer: d) Both a) and c)
Q 2. What would most likely happen in a scenario where a force majeure clause is invoked and the contract doesn't specify the consequences of such an invocation?
a) The contract is automatically terminated.
b) The duty to fulfill the contract is suspended for a certain period.
c) The courts will decide based on the specifics of the case and applicable laws.
d) All of the above
Answer: c) The courts will decide based on the specifics of the case and applicable laws.
Q 3. Suppose a company fails to deliver goods due to government regulations implemented during a pandemic. If the contract contains a force majeure clause, could this company be relieved of its obligations?
a) Yes, as government regulations are typically covered under force majeure clauses.
b) No, because a pandemic does not qualify under force majeure clauses.
c) It depends on how the force majeure clause is worded in the contract.
d) The company would need to invoke the MAC clause instead.
Answer: c) It depends on how the force majeure clause is worded in the contract.
Q 4. What is the main difference between the application of a Force Majeure clause and a Material Adverse Change clause in a contract?
a) A force majeure clause applies to natural disasters while an MAE clause applies to pandemics.
b) A force majeure clause applies to ongoing contractual arrangements, whereas an MAE clause applies to risk allocation before the closure or completion of transactions.
c) Both are the same and can be used interchangeably.
d) An MAE clause applies to ongoing contractual arrangements, whereas a force majeure clause applies to risk allocation before the closure or completion of transactions.
Answer: b) A force majeure clause applies to ongoing contractual arrangements, whereas an MAE clause applies to risk allocation before the closure or completion of transactions.
Q 5. Which of the following best explains how the courts have generally interpreted a Force Majeure clause?
a) An event that is unpredictable and uncontrollable by either of the contracting parties.
b) An event that can be anticipated and controlled by either of the contracting parties.
c) An event that is directly caused by one of the contracting parties.
d) An event that can be avoided with careful planning and precautions.
Answer: a) An event that is unpredictable and uncontrollable by either of the contracting parties.
Recently, a celebrated author published a novel that included explicit descriptions of violence and sexuality. Some sections of society have hailed the book as an honest and unflinching exploration of human nature, while others have criticized it for being obscene and corrupting. The courts are now tasked with determining whether or not the novel should be classified as obscene. The main tests applied by the courts for deciding on obscenity are the "Hicklin Test" and the "Community Standards Test."
Q1. In the "Hicklin Test" which element of the publication is mainly scrutinized for determining its obscenity?
A. The overall theme and message of the publication.
B. The author's intention in writing the publication.
C. Isolated passages of the publication taken out of context.
D. The reactions of the readers to the publication.
Answer: C. Isolated passages of the publication taken out of context.
Q2. If the court applies the "Community Standards Test" to the novel, which of the following would NOT be considered?
A. The contemporary socio-moral attitude of the community.
B. The perceived influence of the novel on the most susceptible readers.
C. The prevalent norms of acceptability in the community.
D. The overall context of the novel.
Answer: B. The perceived influence of the novel on the most susceptible readers.
Q3. If the court decides that the novel is obscene, this could potentially infringe upon which fundamental right of the author?
A. Right to Equality.
B. Right against Exploitation.
C. Right to Freedom of Religion.
D. Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression.
Answer: D. Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression.
Q4. If the novel includes a scene depicting violence that is essential to the overall narrative and message of the story, how would this scene be treated under the Hicklin Test?
A. It would be judged in the context of the overall novel.
B. It would be judged based on its potential impact on susceptible readers.
C. It would not be considered obscene because it is necessary for the story.
D. It would be considered obscene regardless of its relevance to the story.
Answer: B. It would be judged based on its potential impact on susceptible readers.
Q5. If a significant number of people in the community do not find the novel obscene, but a smaller group of individuals believe that they are negatively influenced by the novel, how would this situation be handled under the Community Standards Test?
A. The opinion of the majority would be considered.
B. The opinion of the negatively influenced individuals would be considered.
C. Both opinions would be considered equally.
D. Neither opinion would be considered.
Answer: A. The opinion of the majority would be considered
As per experts' advice, understand the concepts well before solving critical reasoning questions CLAT.
Following the CLAT Preparation Tips will help you know to solve questions quickly in the upcoming exam.
Legal reasoning questions for CLAT 2024 require in-depth comprehension and analytical skills, with a keen eye for detail. As these questions embody the essence of law, they demand understanding of the Indian legal framework, its principles, facts, and application.
“Nobody can go back and start a new beginning, but anyone can start today and make a new ending.”
Frequently Asked Questions
How many questions are asked in CLAT Legal Aptitude section?
In CLAT legal Aptitude Section, around 35-29 questions are asked.
What are the CLAT Legal Aptitude Preparation Tips?
Some of the general preparation tips to crack Legal Aptitude are: Read the passage carefully to answer the questions correctly. Pay attention to all the small details and identify the principles and roles in the passage. Ensure to refer to the best books for preparation.
Which are the best books for CLAT Legal Aptitude section?
Some of the best books for the CLAT Legal Aptitude section are Legal Aptitude for CLAT and other Law Exams: Workbook by A. P Bhardwaj, Our Judiciary (National Book Trust) by National Book Trust, Legal Aptitude (CLAT) by R. K Gupta and Samiksha Gupta.
What are the important topics to be studied under CLAT Legal Aptitude?
Research aptitude, Problem-solving ability, Questions based on hypothetical situations, Law of Torts, Indian Contract Act, Indian Constitution, and Important court decisions.
Can I prepare for CLAT Legal Aptitude Exam in one month?
Is Legal Aptitude Questions easy?