CUET Biology Genetics and Evolution Important Questions with Answers 2027

Overview: Practie the most important CUET Biology Genetics and Evolution Important Questions with Answers. Whether you are aiming for a top score in CUET 2027 or simply want to revise the most frequently tested concepts, this guide covers everything from PYQs (Previous Year Questions) with solutions to topic-wise MCQs on Genetics, Heredity, and Evolution.

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What are CUET Biology Genetics and Evolution Questions?

Genetics and Evolution is one of the most important and high-scoring units in the CUET Biology Section, consistently contributing a significant number of questions in the exam. 

To help you strengthen your preparation, we have compiled the most important CUET Biology Genetics and Evolution questions, including CUET previous year papers questions (PYQs), exam-oriented MCQs, and detailed answer explanations.

These questions cover the most frequently tested topics and closely follow the latest CUET exam pattern.

Whether you're revising key concepts, identifying weak areas, or aiming for a top score in the CUET 2027 Exam, practising these Genetics and Evolution questions will help you improve accuracy, build confidence, and maximise your performance in the Biology section.

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30+ CUET Biology Genetics and Evolution Important Questions with Answers 2027

These are CUET previous year questions and questions modelled closely on the CUET 2027 exam pattern, with options and correct answers exactly as asked in the CUET question paper format.

Q1. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Scientists)	List-II (Discovery)
(A) Sutton and Boveri	(I) X-Body
(B) Sturtevant	(II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
(C) Henking	(III) Transformation in Bacteria
(D) Griffith	(IV) Genetic Maps

Choose the correct option:

(A) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III

(B) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III

(C) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV

(D) A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II

Correct Answer: (A) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III

Explanation: Sutton and Boveri proposed the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance. Sturtevant created the first genetic (linkage) maps. Henking discovered the X-body (what we now call the X chromosome) in grasshoppers. Griffith demonstrated transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Q2. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Chromosome 1 has the most genes and chromosome Y has the fewest

(B) Chromosome 21 has the most genes and chromosome Y has the fewest

(C) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins

(D) The functions of over 50% of discovered genes are unknown

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: Statement (B) is incorrect. It is chromosome 1 (not chromosome 21) that has the highest number of genes. Chromosome Y indeed has the fewest genes among human chromosomes.

Q3. A nucleosome is best described as:

(A) Positively charged DNA wrapped around negatively charged histone octamer

(B) Negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively charged histone octamer

 (C) Positively charged DNA wrapped around positively charged histone octamer

 (D) Negatively charged DNA wrapped around negatively charged histone octamer

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: DNA is negatively charged because of its phosphate backbone. The histone proteins are positively charged (due to lysine and arginine amino acids). This electrostatic attraction allows DNA to wrap around the histone octamer, forming the nucleosome, the basic structural unit of chromatin.

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Q4. An amino acid is attached to which site of tRNA?

(A) Anticodon loop

(B) 3' end

(C) 5' end

 (D) D-loop

Correct Answer: (B) 3' end

Explanation: Every tRNA has a conserved CCA sequence at its 3' end. The amino acid is covalently attached to this 3'-OH end by the enzyme aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase. The anticodon loop, on the other hand, is responsible for recognising the mRNA codon.

Q5. The size of VNTR (Variable Number of Tandem Repeats) varies from:

(A) 0.1 to 20 kb

 (B) 0.1 to 10 kb

(C) 0.2 to 15 kb

(D) 0.2 to 10 kb

Correct Answer: (A) 0.1 to 20 kb

Explanation: VNTRs are satellite DNA sequences that vary in the number of repeating units between individuals. Their size ranges from 0.1 to 20 kb. This variability makes VNTRs the basis of DNA fingerprinting.

Q6. Who performed experiments on Vicia faba to prove that DNA replicates semi-conservatively?

(A) Taylor and colleagues

(B) Matthew Meselson

 (C) Stahl

(D) Hershey and Chase

Correct Answer: (A) Taylor and colleagues

Explanation: Taylor, Woods, and Hughes used radioactive thymidine labelling in Vicia faba (broad bean) root tip cells to demonstrate semi-conservative replication. Meselson and Stahl performed a similar proof using E. coli with heavy nitrogen (¹⁵N).

Also Read: How to Prepare for CUET Biology 2027: Tips & Tricks

Q7. Which of the following represents a test cross in which half the offspring are heterozygous and half are homozygous recessive?

(A) TT × tt

(B) Tt × tt

 (C) Tt × Tt

 (D) tt × tt

Correct Answer: (B) Tt × tt

Explanation: When a heterozygous individual (Tt) is crossed with a homozygous recessive (tt), the offspring are 50% Tt (heterozygous) and 50% tt (homozygous recessive). This is the classic test cross used to determine an organism's genotype.

Q8. A thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR is isolated from:

(A) Thermus aquaticus

(B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(C) E. coli

(D) Salmonella typhimurium

Correct Answer: (A) Thermus aquaticus

Explanation: Taq polymerase, isolated from Thermus aquaticus (a bacterium found in hot springs), is thermostable and can withstand the high temperatures used in PCR cycles (up to ~95°C) without denaturing. This property makes it indispensable for PCR-based techniques.

Q9. Which of the following does NOT affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

(A) Natural selection

(B) Genetic drift

 (C) Gene pool

(D) Gene migration

Correct Answer: (C) Gene pool

Explanation: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is disturbed by five factors: natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow (migration), mutations, and non-random mating. The gene pool itself is not a disturbing factor; it is the population's allele frequency that the Hardy-Weinberg principle describes.

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Q10. Analogous structures are a result of:

(A) Divergent evolution

(B) Convergent evolution

(C) Genetic drift

(D) Point mutations

Correct Answer: (B) Convergent evolution

Explanation: Analogous structures (e.g., the wings of a butterfly and a bird) look similar and perform the same function but have entirely different structural origins. They arise due to convergent evolution, where different species evolve similar traits independently in similar environments.

Q11. Which of the following is the correct base pairing rule for DNA?

(A) Adenine pairs with Cytosine

 (B) Guanine pairs with Thymine

(C) Adenine pairs with Thymine; Guanine pairs with Cytosine

(D) Adenine pairs with Uracil

Correct Answer: (C)

Explanation: In DNA, base pairing follows Chargaff's rules. Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T) via two hydrogen bonds, and Guanine (G) pairs with Cytosine (C) via three hydrogen bonds. Adenine pairs with Uracil only in RNA.

Q12. The phenomenon of one gene influencing the expression of another is called:

(A) Pleiotropy

 (B) Epistasis

 (C) Codominance

 (D) Incomplete dominance

Correct Answer: (B) Epistasis

Explanation: Epistasis occurs when one gene (the epistatic gene) masks or suppresses the expression of another gene at a different locus. Pleiotropy, by contrast, is when a single gene affects multiple phenotypic traits.

Q13. The experiment of Hershey and Chase conclusively proved that:

(A) Proteins are the genetic material

(B) DNA is the genetic material

 (C) RNA is the genetic material

 (D) Both DNA and protein are genetic material

Correct Answer: (B) DNA is the genetic material

Explanation: Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase used radioactive sulfur (³⁵S, which labels proteins) and radioactive phosphorus (³²P, which labels DNA) to show that only ³²P-labelled DNA entered the bacterial host during bacteriophage infection, proving that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material.

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Q14. Which of the following ratios is produced in a dihybrid cross (F2 generation)?

(A) 3:1

(B) 1:2:1

(C) 9:3:3:1

(D) 1:1:1:1

Correct Answer: (C) 9:3:3:1

Explanation: In a dihybrid cross (AaBb × AaBb), Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment produces a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation 9 showing both dominant traits, 3 showing one dominant, 3 showing the other dominant, and 1 showing both recessive traits.

Q15. Which scientist is associated with the Chromosomal Theory of Sex Determination?

(A) Morgan

 (B) Mendel

(C) McClung

(D) Sturtevant

Correct Answer: (C) McClung

Explanation: Clarence McClung proposed that certain chromosomes (accessory chromosomes) are responsible for sex determination. Later, this was refined to what we now know as the XX-XY sex determination system.

Q16. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by:

(A) A point mutation that substitutes Glutamic acid with Valine

 (B) A chromosomal deletion on chromosome 11

(C) A frameshift mutation in the haemoglobin gene

(D) Absence of the haemoglobin protein

Correct Answer: (A)

Explanation: Sickle cell anaemia results from a single nucleotide substitution (point mutation) in the β-globin gene. GAG becomes GTG, which substitutes Glutamic acid (hydrophilic) with Valine (hydrophobic). This causes haemoglobin to aggregate under low oxygen conditions, distorting RBCs into a sickle shape.

Q17. Homologous organs are a result of:

(A) Convergent evolution

(B) Divergent evolution

 (C) Industrial melanism

 (D) Genetic drift

Correct Answer: (B) Divergent evolution

Explanation: Homologous organs share the same basic structural origin (same ancestral blueprint) but perform different functions in different organisms, for example, the forelimbs of a frog, lizard, bird, and human. This is the hallmark of divergent evolution.

Q18. Who proposed that life originated from a "hot dilute soup"?

(A) Louis Pasteur

(B) Oparin and Haldane

(C) Stanley Miller

(D) Francesco Redi

Correct Answer: (B) Oparin and Haldane

Explanation: A.I. Oparin (1924) and J.B.S. Haldane (1929) independently proposed that life arose through chemical evolution in a "primordial soup" of organic molecules in the early ocean. Stanley Miller and Harold Urey later provided experimental support for this hypothesis.

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Q19. In humans, which chromosomal condition leads to Down Syndrome?

(A) Monosomy of chromosome 21

(B) Trisomy of chromosome 21

 (C) Deletion of chromosome 18

(D) Trisomy of sex chromosomes

Correct Answer: (B) Trisomy of chromosome 21

Explanation: Down Syndrome (also called Trisomy 21) occurs when an individual has three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the normal two. It arises from nondisjunction during meiosis, usually in the egg. Affected individuals have 47 chromosomes in total.

Q20. According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, in a population where the frequency of allele 'A' is 0.6 and 'a' is 0.4, what is the expected frequency of heterozygotes (Aa)?

(A) 0.36

 (B) 0.16

(C) 0.48

 (D) 0.24

Correct Answer: (C) 0.48

Explanation: Frequency of heterozygotes = 2pq = 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48. Remember the Hardy-Weinberg formula: p² + 2pq + q² = 1, where p = frequency of dominant allele and q = frequency of recessive allele.

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Q21. Which of the following is a connecting link between reptiles and birds?

(A) Peripatus (B) Archaeopteryx (C) Ichthyostega (D) Platypus

Correct Answer: (B) Archaeopteryx

Explanation: Archaeopteryx is considered a connecting link because it exhibits features of both reptiles (teeth, claws on wings, long bony tail) and birds (feathers, wishbone). It is considered the earliest known bird and key fossil evidence of evolution.

Q22. In sex-linked inheritance, a colour-blind father and a normal homozygous mother will produce:

(A) All colour-blind sons

(B) All carrier daughters, all normal sons

 (C) 50% colour-blind sons and 50% normal sons

 (D) All colour-blind daughters

Correct Answer: (B) All carrier daughters and all normal sons

Explanation: The father's genotype is X^cY and the mother's is X^NX^N. Sons receive Y from the father and X^N from the mother; all sons are normal. Daughters receive X^c from the father and X^N from the mother; all daughters are carriers (X^NX^c).

Q23. The "Law of Segregation" in Mendelian genetics states that:

(A) Two genes for different traits are inherited independently

(B) Alleles of a gene separate during gamete formation

 (C) The dominant allele always masks the recessive one

 (D) Traits acquired during lifetime are inherited by offspring

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: Mendel's Law of Segregation (also called the Law of Purity of Gametes) states that during the formation of gametes (meiosis), the two alleles of a gene separate and each gamete carries only one allele. They come together again at fertilisation.

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Q24. Which of the following best describes genetic drift?

(A) Change in allele frequency due to natural selection

 (B) Random change in allele frequency in a small population

(C) Movement of alleles from one population to another

(D) Change in DNA sequence due to mutation

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: Genetic drift refers to random, chance-based changes in allele frequencies, which are most pronounced in small populations. It can lead to fixation or loss of alleles without any selective advantage or disadvantage making it distinct from natural selection.

Q25. Which enzyme is responsible for the unwinding of DNA double helix during replication?

(A) DNA Polymerase

 (B) DNA Ligase

 (C) Helicase

(D) Primase

Correct Answer: (C) Helicase

Explanation: DNA Helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs at the replication fork, unwinding the double helix and creating two template strands. DNA Polymerase then synthesises new strands, Primase lays down RNA primers, and DNA Ligase seals the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.

Q26. Industrial melanism in Biston betularia (peppered moth) is an example of:

(A) Genetic drift

 (B) Natural selection

(C) Founder effect

 (D) Adaptive radiation

Correct Answer: (B) Natural selection

Explanation: Before industrialisation, white-peppered moths were better camouflaged on pale tree bark and survived more. After industrial pollution darkened the bark, darker moths had a survival advantage. This shift in moth population colour is a textbook example of natural selection in action.

Q27. In Griffith's experiment, the "transforming principle" was later identified as:

(A) Protein

 (B) Lipid

(C) DNA

(D) RNA

Correct Answer: (C) DNA

Explanation: Frederick Griffith (1928) showed that a "transforming principle" from heat-killed virulent S-strain bacteria could convert non-virulent R-strain bacteria into virulent ones. Later, Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty (1944) identified this transforming principle as DNA, not protein or lipid.

Q28. Which of the following is NOT a factor that disturbs Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

(A) Mutation

(B) Migration

(C) Large population size

 (D) Non-random mating

Correct Answer: (C) Large population size

Explanation: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes a large population. A large population size maintains equilibrium; it does not disturb it. The five disturbing factors are: mutations, natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow (migration), and non-random mating.

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Q29. Darwin's finches on the Galapagos Islands are the best example of:

(A) Speciation through convergent evolution

 (B) Adaptive radiation

(C) Genetic drift

 (D) Industrial melanism

Correct Answer: (B) Adaptive radiation

Explanation: Darwin's finches evolved from a common ancestor but diversified into multiple species with different beak shapes adapted to different food sources on different islands. This phenomenon, where a single ancestral species diversifies into many ecological niches, is called adaptive radiation.

Q30. The ABO blood group system in humans is an example of:

(A) Incomplete dominance

(B) Codominance and multiple alleles

(C) Sex-linked inheritance

(D) Epistasis

Correct Answer: (B) Codominance and multiple alleles

Explanation: The ABO blood group involves three alleles I^A, I^B, and i), making it a case of multiple alleles. When both I^A and I^B are present, both are expressed equally (blood group AB), making it also a classic case of codominance.

Q31. The genetic disorder Haemophilia A is due to:

(A) Absence of clotting factor IX

 (B) Absence of clotting factor VIII

(C) Trisomy of chromosome X

(D) Autosomal recessive mutation

Correct Answer: (B) Absence of clotting factor VIII

Explanation: Haemophilia A, the most common form, is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII (antihemophilic factor). It is an X-linked recessive disorder predominantly affecting males, with females acting as carriers. Haemophilia B, by contrast, involves factor IX.

Q32. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of steps in the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology?

(A) Translation → Transcription → Replication

 (B) DNA → RNA → Protein

 (C) Protein → RNA → DNA

 (D) RNA → DNA → Protein

Correct Answer: (B) DNA → RNA → Protein

Explanation: The Central Dogma, proposed by Francis Crick (1958), describes the directional flow of genetic information: DNA is transcribed into mRNA (transcription), which is then translated into protein (translation). Reverse transcription (RNA → DNA) is an exception seen in retroviruses like HIV.

Q33. What is the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of Mendel's monohybrid cross?

(A) 1:1

 (B) 1:2:1

(C) 3:1

(D) 9:3:3:1

Correct Answer: (C) 3:1

Explanation: In Mendel's monohybrid cross (Tt × Tt), the F2 phenotypic ratio is 3 Tall : 1 Dwarf (3:1), because 3 out of 4 offspring (TT + 2Tt) express the dominant phenotype and only 1 (tt) expresses the recessive phenotype. The genotypic ratio, however, is 1:2:1.

Topic-Wise Important MCQs for CUET Genetics and Evolution 2027

Beyond PYQs, you must practise concept-based MCQs that test your understanding more deeply. These are modelled on the actual difficulty and style of CUET Biology questions.

How Does Mendel's Law of Dominance Work? (Genetics MCQs)

Q34. Which of the following crosses demonstrates incomplete dominance?

(A) Red Flower × White Flower → Red Flower

(B) Red Flower × White Flower → Pink Flower

 (C) Tall × Dwarf → Tall

 (D) AB × O → AB

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant. The heterozygote shows an intermediate phenotype; a cross between red and white flowers produces pink flowers (as seen in snapdragon, Antirrhinum majus).

Q35. In a test cross, an organism with an unknown genotype is crossed with:

(A) A homozygous dominant individual

(B) Any random phenotype

 (C) A heterozygous individual

(D) A homozygous recessive individual

Correct Answer: (D)

Explanation: A test cross always uses a homozygous recessive individual (aa or ttww, etc.) because it contributes only recessive alleles, allowing the genotype of the unknown parent to be revealed through the offspring phenotypes.

Q36. Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand during DNA replication?

(A) Helicase

 (B) DNA Polymerase III

 (C) DNA Ligase

(D) Primase

Correct Answer: (C) DNA Ligase

Explanation: Okazaki fragments are short DNA pieces synthesised discontinuously on the lagging strand. DNA Ligase seals the nicks between these fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds, completing the new strand.

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Q37. The wings of a bat and the wings of a butterfly are:

(A) Homologous organs evidence of common ancestry

(B) Analogous organs evolved independently for flight

 (C) Vestigial organs with no function

 (D) Homologous organs evolved through divergent evolution

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: The wing of a bat is a modified forelimb (same skeletal structure as a human arm), while the wing of a butterfly is a completely different structure derived from the integument. They look similar functionally but differ in origin, making them analogous, not homologous.

Q38. Lamarck's theory of evolution is best summarised by which of the following statements?

(A) Species arise through sudden large mutations

 (B) Variations accumulate through natural selection

(C) Acquired characters during an organism's lifetime are heritable

(D) Only the fittest individuals reproduce

Correct Answer: (C)

Explanation: Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed the theory of "Use and Disuse" and inheritance of acquired characteristics, the idea that traits developed during an organism's life (e.g., a giraffe stretching its neck) can be passed to offspring. While this theory is now known to be incorrect, it was historically significant as an early framework for understanding evolution.

Q39. Stanley Miller and Harold Urey's experiment is associated with:

(A) Proving natural selection

(B) Demonstrating abiogenesis and chemical evolution

(C) Discovering DNA structure

(D) Proving semi-conservative replication

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: In 1953, Miller and Urey simulated early Earth conditions (methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water vapour + electric sparks) and produced amino acids and organic molecules from inorganic ones. This supported the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis of chemical evolution and abiogenesis.

Q40. Which of the following conditions is necessary for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to be maintained?

(A) Small population size

(B) Random mating

(C) High mutation rate

 (D) Natural selection acting on the population

Correct Answer: (B) Random mating

Explanation: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium holds only when mating is random, the population is large, there are no mutations, no migration, and no natural selection. Random mating is one of the essential conditions for maintaining allele frequency equilibrium.

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What Are the Core Topics Covered Under Genetics and Evolution in CUET 2027?

Before solving questions, you must know exactly what to study by knowing the CUET 2027 Biology Syllabus. Here are the high-priority subtopics within Genetics and Evolution that appear most frequently in CUET:

From Genetics and Heredity:

• Mendel's Laws of Inheritance (Dominance, Segregation, Independent Assortment)

• Monohybrid and Dihybrid Crosses (Punnett Squares and ratios)

• Incomplete Dominance, Codominance, Multiple Alleles (ABO Blood Groups)

• Sex Determination in Humans, Honey Bee, and Grasshopper

• Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance: Sutton and Boveri

• Linkage and Crossing Over (Morgan's experiments on Drosophila)

• Mutations: Point Mutations, Chromosomal Aberrations

• Genetic Disorders: Haemophilia, Sickle Cell Anaemia, Thalassaemia, Down Syndrome

• DNA Structure Watson and Crick model, Nucleosome

• DNA Replication: Semi-conservative model, Meselson and Stahl, Taylor's experiments

• Transcription, Translation, Genetic Code

• DNA Fingerprinting: VNTR, RFLP

From Evolution:

• Origin of Life: Miller and Urey's experiment, chemical evolution

• Theories of Evolution: Lamarck, Darwin (Natural Selection), Hugo de Vries (Mutation Theory)

• Evidence of Evolution: Homologous organs, Analogous organs, Fossils, Embryology

• Hardy-Weinberg Principle and its violations

• Adaptive Radiation: Darwin's Finches

• Connecting links: Archaeopteryx, Peripatus

• Industrial Melanism as evidence of Natural Selection

• Speciation and Genetic Drift

For a full list of high-weightage concepts across all Biology units, refer to CUET Biology Important Topics.

What Are the Most Important Topics in Genetics for CUET That Students Often Miss?

Despite being in the syllabus, several sub-topics are frequently overlooked by students but regularly appear in CUET:

1. Lac Operon and Gene Regulation

The inducible operon in E. coli, the role of the repressor, inducer (allolactose), and structural genes lacZ, lacY, lacA. CUET has asked direct questions on which gene codes for β-galactosidase.

2. Linkage vs Independent Assortment

Morgan's experiments on Drosophila showed that genes on the same chromosome tend to be inherited together (linkage), which is an exception to Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment.

3. DNA Packaging

The hierarchy from DNA → Nucleosome → Solenoid → Chromatin fibre → Chromosome is frequently tested. Remember: 2 metres of DNA is packaged into a nucleus that is only 10–6 m in diameter.

Mutations vs Chromosomal Aberrations: Point mutations (substitution, insertion, deletion) vs structural chromosomal changes (translocation, inversion, deletion, duplication) are both tested. Sickle cell anaemia = point mutation; Down syndrome = chromosomal nondisjunction.

4. Hardy-Weinberg Calculations

Do not just memorise p² + 2pq + q² = 1. Practise numerical problems in which you are given allele frequencies and must calculate genotype frequencies.

To strengthen your preparation for all these areas, check out CUET Biology Notes and important Questions on TopRankers.

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How Should You Prepare for CUET Biology Genetics and Evolution 2027?

Step 1: Start with NCERT: No Substitutes

Every single concept tested in CUET Biology Genetics and Evolution is rooted in Class 11 and Class 12 NCERT Biology textbooks. Read Chapters 5, 6, and 7 of Class 12 Biology thoroughly. Pay attention to boxed text, diagrams, and scientist names.

Step 2: Make a Concept Map for Each Chapter

After reading, create a one-page concept map for Principles of Inheritance, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, and Evolution. This helps you see the connections between topics and reinforces memory.

Step 3: Solve at Least 50 MCQs Per Chapter

For Genetics and Evolution specifically, the volume of MCQ practice matters enormously. The more question patterns you are exposed to, the better you become at recognising what is being asked. Start with CUET PYQs, then move to NEET-style MCQs on the same topics.

Step 4: Revise Scientists and Their Contributions

CUET consistently asks match-the-following questions pairing scientists with their discoveries. Make a dedicated table covering: Mendel, Morgan, Sutton and Boveri, Sturtevant, Henking, Griffith, Avery/MacLeod/McCarty, Hershey and Chase, Watson and Crick, Meselson and Stahl, Taylor, Darwin, Lamarck, Hugo de Vries, Miller and Urey.

Step 5: Take Subject-Wise Mock Tests

Once you have completed the chapter, take a full Biology mock test under timed conditions. Identify which Genetics and Evolution questions you are getting wrong and revisit those concepts.

For recommended books and study materials, visit CUET Biology Books.