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Daily Current Affairs- 17th May 2026

Author : Saurabh Kabra (CLAT)

May 19, 2026

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Daily Current Affairs- 17th May 2026

Supreme Court Expands Maternity Leave for Adoptive Mothers

In the News: The Supreme Court of India delivered a landmark judgment in Hamsaanandini Nanduri v. Union of India, striking down the three-month age limit imposed on adopted children under Section 60(4) of the Code on Social Security, 2020, for the purpose of availing maternity benefit. A two-judge bench of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan held that maternity benefits extend to all forms of motherhood, including adoption, and are not confined to biological childbirth. The Court read down Section 60(4) to entitle all adoptive mothers to twelve weeks of maternity benefit from the date of handover of the child, irrespective of the child's age at the time of adoption.

Key Points:

  • The Impugned Provision and the Challenge: Section 60(4) of the Code on Social Security, 2020, which is the pari materia provision of Section 5(4) of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, had restricted maternity benefit of twelve weeks only to women adopting a child below the age of three months. The petitioner, an adoptive mother of two children, challenged this provision under Article 32 of the Constitution, arguing that the three-month age limit created an artificial and unreasonable classification among adoptive mothers. She contended that the restriction bore no rational nexus to the object of the statute and was practically unworkable, given that the legal process of adoption under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 and the CARA Regulations, 2022 takes at least two to three months, making it nearly impossible to complete adoption before the child crosses the three-month age threshold.
  • Constitutional Violations Found by the Court: The Supreme Court held that the three-month age restriction violated Article 14 of the Constitution, which guarantees equality before law and equal protection of the laws, as it created an unjustified and under-inclusive classification among adoptive mothers. The Court found no reasonable distinction between a woman who adopts a child aged less than three months and one who adopts a child aged three months or above. The Court further held that the restriction violated Article 21, which protects life and personal liberty and has been interpreted to include the right to dignity and personal autonomy. The Court observed that adoption constitutes an exercise of reproductive and decisional autonomy under Article 21, and denying maternity benefit based on the child's age deprives both the mother and the child of wholesome motherhood and sufficient care for rehabilitation into the new family.
  • The Court's Ruling and Relief Granted: The Supreme Court struck down the three-month age limit under Section 60(4) of the Code on Social Security, 2020, as unconstitutional for being violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution. The Court read down the provision to entitle all adoptive mothers, irrespective of the age of the adopted child, to twelve weeks of maternity benefit from the date on which the child is handed over to the adoptive mother. Justice Pardiwala, writing the judgment, prefaced the decision with a verse by poet Fleur Conkling Heyliger, observing that the transition into motherhood does not occur in the brief moment when legal formalities are completed but is a gradual process that takes shape in the heart of the mother.
  • Code on Social Security, 2020 - Background: The Code on Social Security, 2020, which came into effect on November 21, 2025, is one of the four labour codes enacted by Parliament to consolidate and simplify India's labour laws. It consolidates laws relating to social security, including maternity benefit, employees' compensation, provident fund and gratuity. The other three labour codes are the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, and the Code on Wages, 2019. Maternity benefit in India was originally governed by the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, which was amended in 2017 to introduce provisions for adoptive and commissioning mothers, before being subsumed into the Code on Social Security, 2020.

India Revises Export Duties on Petrol and Diesel

In the News: The Government of India revised the Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on the export of petroleum products through Notification No. 22/2026-Central Excise, amending the earlier Notification No. 06/2026-Central Excise dated March 26, 2026. The export duty on petrol was raised to Rs 3 per litre, while the export duty on diesel was reduced from Rs 23 to Rs 16.50 per litre and the export duty on Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) was revised to Rs 16 per litre from earlier notified Rs 33 per litre. The revision came within a day of the government raising retail fuel prices for the first time since the Iran war began.

Key Points:

  • Petrol Export Duty Raised: The Government of India imposed a Special Additional Excise Duty of Rs 3 per litre on the export of petrol, effective from May 16, 2026. The increase in petrol export duty is intended to compensate for the revenue loss arising from the reduction in export duties on diesel and Aviation Turbine Fuel. The notification was issued by the Ministry of Finance under Section 5A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 read with Section 147 of the Finance Act, 2002, and the revised rates are subject to fortnightly review based on average international prices of crude oil, petrol, diesel and ATF.
  • Diesel and ATF Export Duties Reduced: The Special Additional Excise Duty on diesel exports was reduced by Rs 6.50 per litre, from Rs 23 to Rs 16.50 per litre, to push diesel exports and compensate oil companies for losses in recovery. The export duty on Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) was cut by Rs 17 per litre, from Rs 33 to Rs 16 per litre, a move that could benefit the aviation sector by lowering operational fuel costs. The differential reduction in diesel and ATF export duties reflects the government's strategy to promote the competitiveness of Indian petroleum product exports in international markets while maintaining a balanced revenue framework.
  • Domestic Fuel Prices and Excise Duties: Despite the revision of export duties, the existing excise duty rates on petrol and diesel cleared for domestic consumption remain unchanged. However, the domestic retail prices of both diesel and petrol were raised by Rs 3 per litre under the administered pricing mechanism, and state-level sales taxes on fuel were also increased. This was the first revision in retail fuel prices since the Iran war began, signalling a gradual alignment of domestic prices with rising international crude oil costs and the need to reduce the under-recovery burden on oil marketing companies.
  • Fortnightly Review Mechanism for Export Duties: The Special Additional Excise Duty rates on petroleum product exports are reviewed on a fortnightly basis by the government. The revision is based on the average international prices of crude oil, petrol, diesel and ATF during the period since the last review. This mechanism allows the government to respond dynamically to fluctuations in global energy markets and to calibrate the tax burden on exports to balance revenue generation with the competitiveness of Indian refineries in international fuel trade.
  • Background on Special Additional Excise Duty: The Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on petroleum product exports, commonly referred to as the windfall tax, was first introduced by the Indian government to capture excess profits made by domestic refiners and oil companies during periods of elevated global crude oil prices. The duty framework applies to exports of petrol, diesel and ATF outside India and is distinct from the regular excise duties levied on petroleum products meant for domestic consumption.

CCPA Issues Notices to Amazon, Flipkart, Meesho, JioMart

In the News: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) launched a detailed investigation into major e-commerce platforms, including Amazon, Flipkart, Meesho and JioMart, over the sale and advertisement of an allegedly unregistered agrochemical product marketed as Cyclosinone Herbicide. The consumer rights watchdog, which operates under the Department of Consumer Affairs, had issued notices to these platforms directing them to remove the listings and explain their due diligence mechanisms. The action followed a complaint routed through the Agriculture Ministry, based on representations made by the Crop Care Federation of India.

Key Points:

  • The Product and the Complaint: Cyclosinone Herbicide was being marketed on major e-commerce platforms as a weed-control chemical for killing or suppressing unwanted weeds, grasses and broadleaf plants on farms, lawns, orchards and landscaped areas. The Crop Care Federation of India alleged that the herbicide was being sold online despite not being registered under the Insecticides Act, 1968. The complaint further alleged that the product listings and promotional content failed to disclose key information such as the active ingredient and precise chemical composition, depriving consumers, particularly farmers, of critical safety and usage details.
  • CCPA's Findings and Action: The CCPA observed serious deficiencies in how the product was listed across online marketplaces. It noted that the listings allegedly omitted disclosure of the active ingredient and chemical composition, valid licence numbers and their validity period, statutory safety warnings relating to hazardous substances, and Principal Authorization Certificates required under the law. The CCPA has sought details from the platforms regarding the date of initial listing, the duration for which the product remained available, total number of listings since January 2024, particulars of sellers associated with the listings, and the due diligence systems adopted to ensure compliance with applicable laws governing online sale of hazardous substances.
  • Legal Framework - Insecticides Act, 1968: As per Section 18 of the Insecticides Act, 1968, no person, either directly or through another person on their behalf, can sell, stock, exhibit for sale, distribute, transport or use any pesticide that is not registered under the law. The CCPA has also cited Rule 10(E) of the Insecticides (Second Amendment) Rules, 2022, which specifically governs the sale of insecticides through e-commerce entities. This rule mandates that online platforms verify the validity of licences issued to sellers before permitting the sale of insecticides on their portals and ensure compliance with consumer protection norms.
  • About the Central Consumer Protection Authority: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is a regulatory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, operating under the Department of Consumer Affairs. It is empowered to regulate matters relating to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements. The CCPA's action in this case is expected to push e-commerce platforms to strengthen their verification mechanisms for sellers of pesticides and agrochemicals. Experts have noted that e-commerce platforms cannot escape responsibility when hazardous or unregistered agrochemical products are sold through their portals, as farmers rely on such platforms for genuine and safe products, and any lapse in verification or disclosure can directly impact agricultural safety and consumer trust.

ISIS Second-in-Command Abu-Bilal al-Minuki Killed in Nigeria

In the News: The Presidents of the United States and Nigeria announced the killing of Abu-Bilal al-Minuki, described as the second-in-command of ISIS globally, in a joint US-Nigeria military operation. US President Donald Trump stated that the operation was carried out by American forces alongside the Armed Forces of Nigeria to eliminate what he called "the most active terrorist in the world." Nigerian President Bola Tinubu confirmed that al-Minuki was killed along with several of his lieutenants during a precision strike on his compound in the Lake Chad Basin area of Metele in Borno State, northeast Nigeria.

Key Points:

  • The Military Operation: The Nigerian army described the strike as a meticulously planned and highly complex precision air-land operation carried out between midnight and 4 am local time in Metele, Borno State, in northeast Nigeria. Borno has been the epicentre of a long-running insurgency by the Boko Haram armed group and its splinter faction, the Islamic State West Africa Province (ISWAP). US President Trump announced the operation on the social media platform Truth Social, stating that Abu-Bilal al-Minuki thought he could hide in Africa but American intelligence sources had been tracking his activities. Nigerian President Tinubu expressed appreciation for the partnership with the United States in advancing shared security objectives.
  • Who Was Abu-Bilal al-Minuki: Abu-Bilal al-Minuki, also known as Abu-Mainok, was born in Borno State, Nigeria in 1982. He was a former prominent Boko Haram leader who pledged allegiance to ISIS in 2015 and rose through the ranks of ISWAP following the disappearance of veteran commander Mamman Nur in 2018. He was designated as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist by the United States on June 8, 2023. The Nigerian army described him as a key operational and strategic figure who provided guidance to ISIS entities outside Nigeria on media operations, economic warfare and weapons manufacturing, and who oversaw ISIS-linked operations across the Sahel and West Africa, including attacks against ethnic and religious minority communities.
  • Role Within the Global ISIS Network: Al-Minuki served as the senior leader of ISIS's al-Furqan Office, one of the group's most active and established regional networks. These regional offices are tasked with providing ISIS affiliates with operational direction and access to international funding. The al-Furqan Office oversaw activities in Nigeria and neighbouring countries, in addition to the Islamic State in the Greater Sahara (ISGS) network operating across the western Sahel. In 2018, he was linked to the kidnapping of more than 100 schoolgirls in Dapchi in northeastern Nigeria's Yobe State. The Nigerian army stated that his death removes a critical node through which ISIS coordinated and directed operations across different regions of the world.

The latest Ebola outbreak is now a global health emergency

In the News: The Director-General of the World Health Organization (WHO) declared the epidemic of Ebola disease caused by Bundibugyo virus in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and Uganda a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC). As of May 16, 2026, eight laboratory-confirmed cases, 246 suspected cases and 80 suspected deaths had been reported in Ituri Province of the DRC, while two confirmed cases, including one death, had been reported in Kampala, Uganda, among individuals who had travelled from the DRC. The WHO stated that the event does not meet the criteria for a pandemic emergency but requires urgent international coordination and cooperation.

Key Points:

  • Declaration of PHEIC and Its Basis: The WHO Director-General determined that the Bundibugyo virus disease outbreak constitutes a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) under Article 12 of the International Health Regulations (IHR), 2005. The declaration was based on three key factors: the event is extraordinary due to the scale and nature of the outbreak, it poses a public health risk to other countries through international spread of the disease, and it requires coordinated international action to understand the extent of the outbreak and implement control measures
  • Scale and Spread of the Outbreak: The outbreak is centred in Ituri Province of the Democratic Republic of the Congo, affecting at least three health zones including Bunia, Rwampara and Mongbwalu. The high positivity rate of initial samples collected, with eight positives among 13 samples, along with increasing trends in suspected cases and clusters of deaths across the province, indicate a potentially much larger outbreak than what is currently being detected and reported. International spread has already been documented, with two confirmed cases reported in Kampala, Uganda on May 15 and 16, 2026, among individuals travelling from the DRC, both of whom were admitted to intensive care units.
  • Challenges Complicating the Response: The WHO noted significant uncertainties regarding the true number of infected persons and the geographic spread of the outbreak, with limited understanding of epidemiological links between known or suspected cases. At least four healthcare worker deaths in a clinical context suggestive of viral haemorrhagic fever have been reported from the affected area, raising concerns about healthcare-associated transmission and gaps in infection prevention and control measures. Ongoing insecurity, a protracted humanitarian crisis, high population mobility, the urban nature of the current hotspot and a large network of informal healthcare facilities further compound the risk of spread. Unlike Ebola-Zaire strains, there are currently no approved Bundibugyo virus-specific therapeutics or vaccines available.
  • WHO Recommendations for Affected and Neighbouring Countries: The WHO has advised the DRC and Uganda to activate their national emergency management mechanisms, establish emergency operation centres and implement comprehensive control measures including enhanced surveillance, contact tracing, infection prevention and control, risk communication, laboratory diagnostic testing and case management. Confirmed cases must be isolated with no international travel until two negative diagnostic tests conducted at least 48 hours apart, while contacts must be monitored daily with no international travel for 21 days after exposure. Countries sharing land borders with the DRC have been advised to urgently enhance their preparedness, including active surveillance across health facilities, community surveillance for unexplained deaths and access to qualified diagnostic laboratories.

CAFE III Fuel Efficiency Norms Likely by May-End

In the News: The Government of India is likely to notify the final Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) III norms by the end of May 2026, with industry executives expressing growing confidence that the long-awaited fuel-efficiency rules are nearing completion. The notification has undergone a last-minute recalibration to align the framework with India's accelerated ethanol roadmap, shifting the reference fuel from E20 to E25/E27. The final norms will leave automakers with less than 11 months to prepare for implementation from April 1, 2027, forcing them to lock in product plans, supplier contracts and capital-allocation decisions.

Key Points:

  • CAFE III Norms and the E25 Recalibration: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is updating the core compliance formula of the CAFE III norms to recalibrate the reference fuel from E20 to E25/E27, aligning the framework with India's accelerated ethanol blending roadmap. The exercise primarily involves updating the chemical and conversion-factor assumptions used to calculate certified CO2 emissions during laboratory testing, rather than rewriting the policy architecture. The core CAFE III targets remain unchanged, and only the underlying chemistry and conversion math are being updated so that automakers are assessed on vehicle efficiency rather than being penalised for the properties of a higher-ethanol fuel.
  • Government's Urgency and Policy Objectives: The matter has received attention at the highest levels of government, with the Prime Minister's Office understood to have urged the BEE not to let technical recalibration delay the final notification. The urgency reflects the government's broader objectives of reducing dependence on imported crude oil, expanding ethanol use and accelerating the adoption of cleaner technologies. Industry officials have confirmed that all major consultations have been completed and that the remaining inputs are largely suggestions rather than objections, with the final notification expected by the end of May 2026.
  • Impact on Technology Choices and Compliance Economics: CAFE III will reshape the economics of technology choices in India's passenger vehicle market by determining fleet-average fuel-efficiency targets and how compliance credits are assigned to battery electric vehicles, strong hybrids and flex-fuel technologies. Incorporating E25 into the testing baseline could provide an implicit compliance cushion, as higher ethanol content lowers the certified carbon intensity of petrol on paper. Combined with proposed super-credits for flex-fuel vehicles, this could ease near-term compliance pressure and broaden the technology options available to manufacturers.
  • Automaker Preparedness and Flex-Fuel Strategies: Leading automakers are already preparing distinct flex-fuel strategies in anticipation of the CAFE III norms. Maruti Suzuki is expected to deploy ethanol-compatible technology in high-volume models, Toyota Kirloskar Motor is combining flex-fuel engines with strong hybrids, and Tata Motors has said its flex-fuel technology is ready for launch around late 2026 or early 2027. With automakers already finalising their FY28 product and powertrain strategies, the final rulebook is critical for shaping technology bets, capital allocation and competitive positioning through the rest of the decade.
  • What is CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Economy): Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) norms are fuel-efficiency standards that require automobile manufacturers to meet a prescribed fleet-average CO2 emission target across all passenger vehicles sold in a given compliance period. The norms are administered by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power and are aimed at improving the fuel efficiency of vehicles, reducing vehicular emissions and lowering India's dependence on imported crude oil. CAFE III is the third phase of these norms, scheduled for implementation from April 1, 2027, and will set stricter emission and efficiency benchmarks compared to the earlier CAFE I and CAFE II phases.

IN-SPACe Leads Indian Space-Tech Delegation to Italy

In the News: The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) led a delegation of nine Indian space-tech firms to Space Meetings Veneto 2026 in Venice, Italy, during May 11-15, 2026, to expand global partnerships and strengthen the international footprint of India's private space ecosystem. The Indian delegation held strategic talks with the Italian Space Industry Study Group to explore deeper commercial and technological cooperation, and several Indian firms signed MoUs and framework agreements with Italian and European space companies during the event.

Key Points:

  • MoUs and Partnerships Signed: Karnataka-based Astrobase Space Technologies signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Impulso Space to support customer access and explore launch opportunities through integrated mission management and launch service networks. Kepler Aerospace signed a framework agreement with Apogeo Space to expand global Ground Station as a Service (GSaaS) infrastructure and strengthen satellite collaboration between India and Europe. VyomIC showcased its technologies and announced a strategic collaboration focused on building next-generation navigation and resilient infrastructure technologies.
  • India Space Pavilion at Venice: For the first time, IN-SPACe set up a dedicated 50 square metre India Space Pavilion at the Space Meetings Veneto to showcase the Indian space sector to a global audience. The pavilion included dedicated exhibition space and meeting venues for Indian companies to display their products and services to delegates from across the world. Space Meetings Veneto 2026, held at Venezia Terminal Passeggeri in Venice, is branded as Italy's major space event for Europe, with the previous edition witnessing participation from around 400 companies, over 5,000 B2B meetings and 3,500 participants from 25 countries.
  • India-Italy Space Cooperation Framework: The delegation visit is part of the broader India-Italy Joint Strategic Action Plan 2025-2029, announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Italian Prime Minister Giorgia Meloni during their meeting at the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in November 2024. It follows the successful Italian Aerospace Delegation's visit to India in September 2025, co-organised by IN-SPACe and the Italian Trade Agency in coordination with the Italian Space Agency (ASI). During the 2025 visit, around 13 Italian private sector entities held road shows in Hyderabad, Bengaluru and New Delhi, facilitating networking opportunities with approximately 180 Indian space companies.
  • About IN-SPACe and India's Space Reforms: IN-SPACe has been formed under the Department of Space (DOS) to promote, enable, authorise and supervise Non-Government Entities (NGEs) and academia to undertake space activities as part of the Government of India's historic space sector reforms. Dr. P.K. Jain, Director of Program Management and Authorization Directorate at IN-SPACe, stated that India's participation at Space Meetings Veneto reflects the growing global confidence in the country's space capabilities and private sector ecosystem.

About the Author

Faculty
Saurabh Kabra (CLAT)

Saurabh Kabra

Saurabh has trained over 30,000 students in the last 6 years. His interest lies in traveling, loves food and binge watching. He was NSS President and Student Council’s Head during his college days. ... more