Worried about how to clear the IBPS SO Prelims Exam? Wondering how to score more than the cut off marks? Well, in this post, candidates can get all the IBPS SO Important Questions for Prelims Preparation. Go through the complete post to know what are the important IBPS SO Questions for the Prelims Exam.

  • As the Preliminary examination for Specialist Officer is scheduled on December 28 & 29, check the IBPS SO Important Topics to enhance your preparation for the exam.
  • Practicing the important questions provided in this post will help candidates to estimate the type of questions that can appear in the exam.
  • Ensure to download the IBPS SO Admit Card well in advance before the exam and do not forget to carry it to the exam center.
  • In IBPS SO Prelims Exam, there are four sections which include Reasoning, English Language, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude. 

IBPS SO Important Questions 2019 Overview

As the IBPS SO Syllabus is huge and it is most common that candidates tend to get confused about what to study and how to prepare? To help each candidate be well prepared for the IBPS SO Exam, here are the topic-wise important questions. 

  • There are 6 different posts under Specialist Officer, hence the IBPS SO Cut Off, the exam pattern, and marking scheme varies. 
  • In this post, candidates can find the most important IBPS SO Questions for each section and topic. Go through the complete post to know the questions.
  • These IBPS SO Important Questions are prepared by a panel of experts in the relevant field for enhancing student's preparation.
  • By solving these questions during the last few days left for the exam, candidates can definitely score above the cut off.

IBPS SO Mock Test Series

IBPS SO Mock Test Series

IBPS SO Reasoning Important Questions

Go through the most expected and important questions for the Reasoning section here. We have provided topic-wise important questions for the reasoning section here.

Syllogism Questions

In the questions below are given some conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions. Assume the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

1. Conclusions:
I. Some cats are dogs.
II. At least some rats are birds.
III. All rats being cats is a possibility.

Statements:
I. Some birds are dogs. Some dogs are rats. Some rats are cats.
II. All birds are rats. Some rats are cats. No dog is rat.
III. All birds are rats. All rats are dogs. No dog is cat.
IV. Some birds are rats. Some rats are dogs. No dog is cat.
V. Some birds are rats. Some rats are dogs. Some dogs are cats.
1) Only statement I
2) Only statement II
3) Only statement III
4) Only statement IV
5) Only statement V

Answer – 5) Only statement V

2. Conclusions:
I. All Parrots are Scissors.
II. Some Scissors are definitely not Combs.

Statements:
I. Some Parrots are Sparrow. Some Sparrows are Scissors. No Comb is Sparrow.
II. All Scissors are Sparrow. Some Sparrows are Parrots. No Comb is Sparrow.
III. All Parrots are Sparrow. Some Sparrows are Scissors. Some Combs are Scissors.
IV. All Parrots are Sparrow. All Sparrows are Scissors. No Comb is Sparrow.
V. All Parrots are Sparrow. All Sparrows are Scissors. Some Combs are Scissors.
1) Only statement I
2) Only statement II
3) Only statement III
4) Only statement IV
5) Only statement V

Answer – 4) Only statement IV

3. Conclusions:
I. Some heroes are zeroes.
II. At least some top are joker.
III. All top being hero is a possibility.

Statements:
I. Some jokers are top. Some top are zero. Some zeroes are hero. All top are bottom.
II. Some jokers are zero. Some zeroes are top. Some top are hero. No joker is bottom.
III. All jokers are top. Some top are bottom. All heroes are bottom. No zero is bottom.
IV. All jokers are top. All top are zero. No zero is hero. Some bottoms are zero.
V. Some jokers are top. Some top are zero. No bottom is hero. All zero are bottoms.
1) Only statement I
2) Only statement II
3) Only statement III
4) Only statement IV
5) Only statement V

Answer – 1) Only statement I

4. Statements:
Some colours are walls.
All brushes are walls.
All paints are colours.
Some brushes are balls.

Conclusions:
I. Some brushes are paints.
II. Some balls are definitely colours.
III. At least some walls are the ball.
1) If both conclusions I and III follow
2) If only conclusion III follows
3) If both conclusions I and II follow
4) If both conclusions II and III follow
5) If all conclusions follow

Answer – 2) If only conclusion III follows

5. Conclusion:
Some pages are sheets. All sheets are pens.

Statements:
1) All pages are sheets. All the sheets are paper. All papers are pens.
2) All pages are sheets. Some pens are pages. Some sheets are paper.
3) All the sheets are paper. All papers are pens. Some pages are pens.
4) Some pages are sheets. No pen is paper. All the sheets are paper.
5) None of these

Answer – 1) All pages are sheets. All the sheets are paper. All papers are pens.

Alphanumeric Coding Questions

1. If in a certain Code BOOKLET is written as DSUSVQH , then how ANSWER written in that code ?
1.AQYFBP
2.CRYEOD
3.DERSDY
4.BPZFPC
5.None of these

Answer – 2.CRYEOB

2. LIVE: ? :: CARE: WGLK

1.FOPK
2.GPOL
3.FPOK
4.EOPK
5.None of these

Answer – 1.FOPK

3. Complete the series: MKP, QOT,  USX,   ?

1.YXG
2.ZWB
3.YWB
4.UZC
5.None of these

Answer – 3.YWB

4. SIGNAL is coded as TKJOCO, then what will be the code for CALENDER ?

1.DCOEQFHF
2.EDOFPEHU
3.ECOEQFGT
4.DCOFPGFT
5.None of these

Answer – 4.DCOFPGFT

5. Find the missing term in the series: QLF,  TOI,  ADP,  DGS,  ? ,CKH

1.ZJF
2.YIF
3.ZID
4.ZHE
5.None of these

Answer – 4.ZHE

Seating Arrangement Questions

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:

Six players A, B, C, D, E and F of six different countries P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center. They all scored different runs in the match viz. 41, 44, 48, 50, 52 and 54 but not necessarily in the same order. C is seated second to the right of the player of country S. The one who scored 54 runs is not C. The one who scored 48 runs is seated second to the left of the player of country U who is not A or C. B is seated opposite to the player of country T who scored 44 runs. There is only one player between the player of country U and T but he is not from country P. Player of country T sits second to the right of player of country U. The player who scored 50 runs is seated second to the right of A. The player who scored 52 runs is not seated near to the one who scored 44 runs. F is seated immediately left of the player of country R but not near to A. The player of country P is not seated near to the player of country Q but the immediate right of D.

1. Who is sitting opposite to the player of country Q?
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) Player of country P
5) F

Answer: 4) Player of country P

2. What is the position of the player who scored 41 runs with respect to the one who scored 48 runs?
1) Second to the right
2) Immediate right
3) Immediate left
4) Opposite
5) Second to the left

Answer: 4) Opposite

3. Which of the following statement is true?
1) E is the player of country U
2) C is second to the right of B but not near to E
3) B scored 52 runs and near to C
4) Player of country R is opposite to player of country S
5) C scored 50 runs

Answer: 1) E is the player of country U

4. Who among the following scored 41 runs?
1) D
2) C
3) A
4) B
5) E

Answer: 2) C

5. Who is sitting opposite to E?
1) Player of country R
2) The one who scored 41 runs
3) A
4) F
5) B

Answer: 1) Player of country R

Machine Input-Output Questions

A word arrangement machine when given an input of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps rearrangement.
INPUT: Mobile Bag Plate Charger Mouse Box
STEP 1: Bag Mobile Plate Charger Mouse Box
STEP 2: Bag Box Mobile Plate Charger Mouse
STEP 3: Bag Box Charger Mobile Plate Mouse
STEP 4: Bag Box Charger Mobile Mouse Plate
This is the final arrangement and step 4 is the last step.

As per the rules followed in the given steps, answer the questions given below for the following input.

Input: Rent Dear House Bear Colony

1. What would be the last step of the following input?
1) Bear Colony Dear House Rent
2) Dear Bear House Colony Rent
3) Rent Dear House Bear Colony
4) Bear Colony House Rent Dear
5) Bear Colony Dear Rent House

Answer – 1) Bear Colony Dear House Rent

2. How many steps are there?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
5) Either 3 or 5

Answer – 2) 4

3. Which comes exactly between “Colony” and “House” in the final step?
1) Dear
2) Bear
3) Rent
4) Either Bear or Rent
5) None of these

Answer – 1) Dear

4. Which element is 3rd from the left in the final step?
1) Bear
2) Dear
3) Rent
4) House
5) Colony

Answer – 2) Dear

5. What would be the penultimate step of the given input?
1) Bear Colony Rent Dear House
2) Bear Rent Dear House Colony
3) Bear Colony Dear Rent House
4) Bear Colony Dear House Rent
5) None of the above

Answer – 3) Bear Colony Dear Rent House

Blood Relation Questions

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

P^Q – P is the child of Q
P!Q – P is the parent of Q
P*Q – P is elder to Q
P#Q – P is younger to Q
P@Q – P is the brother of Q
P&Q – P is the wife of Q
P+Q – P is the sister-in-law of Q

1. If G ! A ^ T + J & O @ L ^ P! G, then how is J related to A?
1) Uncle
2) Brother-in-law
3) Daughter-in-law
4) Aunt
5) None of these

Answer- 4) Aunt

2. If A!B^C+D&E@F^G!A and G is the wife of H then how is G related to C?
1) Mother
2) Mother-in-law
3) Sister-in-law
4) Daughter-in-law
5) None of these

Answer- 2) Mother-in-law

3. If A!B^C+D&E@F^G!A, if B is the son of C, then how is A related to B?
1) Uncle
2) Father
3) Mother
4) Aunt
5) None of these

Answer- 2) Father

4. If P*Q^R@S#T*P, the age of Q is 22 years and age of T is 33 years, so what can be the age of P?
1) 17 years
2) 13 years
3) 29 years
4) 40 years
5) 36 years

Answer- 3) 29 years

5. If I!J@K#L^I!M*K, the age of M is 25 years and age of L is 32 years, so what can be the age of K?
1) 27 years
2) 23 years
3) 29 years
4) 30 years
5) 34 years

Answer- 2) 23 years

Distance and Direction Questions

Study the following information and answer the given questions.
Seven friends, I, J, K, L, M, N, and O had their houses situated along a straight row facing the north. They like different items among Eraser, Pencil, Pen, Scale, Book, Board and Table but not necessarily in the same order. The distance between the neighboring houses was a successive integral multiple of 5km and the distance increased from left to right.
I’s house was third to the left of the friend who likes board. J’s house was 135km to the right of the friend who likes scale. K’s house was exactly between O’s house and the friend who likes the table. The friend who likes the book was to the immediate left of the friend who likes pen. The friend who likes the pen was 115km to the left of L’s house. The friend who likes board was the neighbor of L’s house. The friend who likes scale was 85km away from M’s house. The friend who likes the eraser had the house at one of the extreme ends. O did not like a pencil. The distance between any two houses was less than 80 km.

1. Which item does N like?
1) Eraser
2) Board
3) Pencil
4) Table
5) Book

Answer – 2) Board

2. What is the distance between K and the friend who likes Pen?
1) 95km
2) 170km
3) 150km
4) 135km
5) 85km

Answer – 4) 135km

3. How many houses are there between I and the friend who likes a pencil?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four

Answer – 4) Three

4. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of M?
1) I
2) The one who likes pen
3) O
4) The one who likes pencil
5) J

Answer – 1) I

5. Who among the following has the distance of 120km between them?
1) I, The one who likes pen
2) J, L
3) O, The one who likes the book
4) K, The one who likes pen
5) None of these

Answer – 3) O, The one who likes book

Order & Ranking Questions 

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:

Six people P, Q, R, S, T, and U start their journey for office from Jalandhar to Ludhiana on different days, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday but not necessarily in the same order and one day out of these days is that no person goes for office. Each person starts their journey to the office at different times i.e. 9 a.m., 11 a.m., 12 p.m., 2 p.m., 4 p.m., and 6 p.m. but not necessarily in the same order. P goes immediate before T. The day on which no person goes from Jalandhar to Ludhiana is after the day on which T goes. There is a gap of two days between the days on which no person goes and P goes. P goes to Ludhiana before 4 p.m. S who goes at 2 p.m. is not going on Monday. U goes at 6 p.m. and R goes at 12 p.m. Sunday and Thursday is not among those days in which no person goes to their office and the timing of the person who goes on Sunday is 9 a.m. The day on which a person goes to the office at 6 p.m. is immediately before the day on which no person goes to the office. S is immediately before the person who goes office at 9 a.m.

1. Who among the following goes Jalandhar to Ludhiana on Sunday?
1) P
2) U
3) Q
4) T
5) R

Answer – 3) Q

2. Which of the following day is the day on which no person goes to the office?
1) Monday
2) Tuesday
3) Wednesday
4) Friday
5) Saturday

Answer – 4) Friday

3. How many persons go from Jalandhar to Ludhiana between R and S?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four

Answer – 4) Three

4. Who among the following goes to office at 11 a.m.?
1) P
2) Q
3) T
4) U
5) None of these

Answer – 1) P

5. How many persons go from Jalandhar to Ludhiana after T?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four

Answer – 4) Three

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IBPS SO Quantitative Aptitude Questions

Start solving the most IBPS SO important Questions for Quant section provided here.

Simplification Questions

1. 456 ÷ 24 * 38 – 958 + 364 = ?
A. 126
B. 127
C. 128
D. 138
E. None of these

Answer – C. 128

2. (85410 + 36885 + 24705) ÷ 1600 = ?
A. 92.875
B. 91.875
C. 93.675
D. 92.675
E. None of these

Answer – B. 91.875

3. 184 ÷ 46 ÷ 0.008 ÷ 12.5 = ?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80
E. None of these

Answer – B. 40

4. 5610 ÷ 35.0625 * 25 = ?
A. 3000
B. 2000
C. 5000
D. 4000
E. 6000

Answer – D. 4000

5. 20*168÷14-40 = ? + 110
A. 60
B. 30
C. 40
D. 80
E. 90

Answer – E. 90

Time and Distance Questions

Two trains 200 m and 160 m long, run at the rate of 60 km/h and 100 km/h respectively on parallel rails. How long will it take a man sitting in the second train to pass the first train if they run in the opposite direction?
1) 4.4 seconds
2) 4.5 seconds
3) 3.24 seconds
4) 4 seconds
5) None of these

Answer – 2) 4.5 seconds

2. A car traveled 80% of the distance from town A to B by traveling at T hours at an average speed of V km/h. The car travels at an average speed of S km/h for the remaining part of the trip. Which of the following expressions represents the average speed for the entire trip?
1) 12VS/(9V+S)
2) 5VS/(4S+V)
3) VT/3S
4) 9VS/(4S+V)km/h
5) None of these

Answer – 2) 5VS/(4S+V)

3. Andy lives on 10th floor and Bimal lives on 45th floor. Andy goes up at a rate of 34 floors per minute and Bimal comes down at a rate of 36 floors per minute. At which floor they will meet?
1) 27
2) 26
3) 18
4) 32
5) None of these

Answer – 1) 27

4. Train X starts at 7.00 a.m. from a certain station with A Km/h and train Y starts at 9.30 a.m. from the same station at B km/h. If B > A, then how many hours will train Y take to overtake train X?
1) 5A/(2(B-A)) hrs
2) 2A/(5(B-A)) hrs
3) (2(B-A))/5A hrs
4) (5(B-A))/2A hrs
5) None of these

Answer – 1) 5A/(2(B-A)) hrs

5. A train traveling at 96 km/h completely crosses another train having half its length and traveling in the opposite direction at 84 km/h in 6 s. It also passes a railway platform in 45 s. The length of the platform is:
1) 400 m
2) 500 m
3) 660 m
4) 350 m
5) None of these

Answer – 5) None of these

Profit and Loss Questions

1. A milkman buys two cows for Rs. 3000. He sells first cow at a profit of 22% and the second cow at a loss of 8%. What is the SP of second cow if in the whole transaction there is no profit no loss?
1) Rs. 2312
2) Rs. 2024
3) Rs. 2484
4) Rs. 2532
5) None of these

Answer – 2) Rs. 2024

2. Sum of CP’s of two cows is Rs. 39, 000. Both the cows are sold at a profit of 20% and 40% respectively with their SP’s being the same. What is the difference of CP’s of both the cows?
1) Rs. 3,000
2) Rs. 2, 000
3) Rs. 1, 500
4) Rs. 2, 500
5) None of these

Answer – 1) Rs. 3,000

3. A shopkeeper sells his gods at its CP only. But he uses 650 g weight at the place of 1000 g weight for a kg. What is his net profit percentage?
1) 55%
2) 20 1/3%
3) 49 2/3%
4) 53 11/13%
5) None of these

Answer – 4) 53 11/13%

4. A fruit vendor professes to sell fruits at the cost price, but uses false weights. He gains 40% in this manner. What weight does he substitute for one kilogram?
1) 745 1/3 g
2) 750 g
3) 714 2/7 g
4) 800 g
5) None of these

Answer – 3) 714 2/7 g

5. A man would gain 25% by selling a chair for Rs. 47.5 and would gain 15% by selling a table for Rs. 57.5. He sells the chair for Rs. 45; what is the least price for which he must sell the table to avoid any loss on the two together?
1) Rs. 41.2
2) Rs. 48.5
3) Rs. 42.5
4) Rs. 43
5) Cannot be determined

Answer – 4) Rs. 43

Quadratic Questions

1. x² – 34x + 288 = 0
y² – 28y + 192 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X ≥ Y
D. X ≤ Y
E. X = Y or relation cannot be established

Answer: C. X ≥ Y

2. x² – 26x + 168 = 0
y² – 32y + 252 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X ≥ Y
D. X ≤ Y
E. X = Y or relation cannot be established

Answer: D. X ≤ Y

3. (x – 19)² = 0
y² = 361
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X ≥ Y
D. X ≤ Y
E. X = Y or relation cannot be established

Answer: C. X ≥ Y

4. x² – 26x + 168 = 0
y² – 34y + 285 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X ≥ Y
D. X ≤ Y
E. X = Y or relation cannot be established

Answer: B. X < Y

5. x² – 31x + 234 = 0
y² – 34y + 285 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X ≥ Y
D. X ≤ Y
E. X = Y or relation cannot be established

Answer: E. X = Y or relation cannot be established

Average Questions

1. The average price of 80 mobile phones is Rs.30,000. If the highest and lowest price mobile phones are sold out then the average price of remaining 78 mobile phones is Rs. 29,500. The cost of the highest mobile is Rs.80,000. The cost of lowest price mobile is?
A. Rs. 18000
B. Rs. 15000
C. Rs. 19000
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these

Answer – C. Rs. 19000

2. In a Company the average income of all the employees is Rs. 20000 per month. Recently the company announced increment of Rs. 2000 per month for all the employees. The new average income of all the employees is?
A. 22000
B. 24000
C. 28000
D. 26000
E. None of these

Answer – A. 22000

3. The average weight of all the 11 players of CSK is 50 kg. If the average of first six lightest weight players of CSK is 49 kg and that of the six heaviest players of CSK is 52 kg. The average weight of the player which lies in the sixth position in the list of players when all the 11 players of CSK are arranged in the order of increasing or decreasing weights.
A. 54 kg
B. 50 kg
C. 53 kg
D. 56 kg
E. 52 kg

Answer – D. 56 kg

4. Suresh started his journey from P to Q by his bike at the speed of 40 kmph and then, the same distance he travelled on his foot at the speed of 10 kmph from Q to R. Then he returned from R to P via Q at the speed of 24 kmph. The average speed of the whole trip is:
A. 18.5 kmph
B. 19.8 kmph
C. 18.2 kmph
D. 19.2 kmph
E. None of these

Answer – D. 19.2 kmph

5. The average income of Arun, Bala and Chitra is Rs. 12,000 per month and average income of Bala, Chitra and David is Rs. 15,000 per month. If the average salary of David be twice that of Arun, then the average salary of Bala and Chitra is in Rs?
A. 15,000
B. 20,000
C. 14500
D. 13500
E. None of these

Answer – D. 13500

Percentage Questions

1. Cost Price of two laptops is same. One of the laptops is sold at a profit of 15% and the Selling Price of another one laptop is Rs. 3400 more than the first one. The net profit is 20%. What is the Cost Price of Each laptop?
A.36000
B.40000
C.48000
D.34000
E.None of these

Answer: D.34000

2. In an office there are 40% female employees. 50% of the male employees are UG graduates. The total 52% of employees are UG graduates out of 1800 employees. What is the number of female employees who are UG graduates?
A. 362
B. 412
C. 396
D. 428
E. None of these

Answer: C. 396

3. Ankita is 25 years old. If Rahul’s age is 25% greater than that of Ankita then how much percent Ankita’s age is less than Rahul’s age?
A. 40%
B. 35%
C. 10%
D. 20%
E.None of these

Answer: D. 20%

4. In an election only two candidates A and B contested 30% of the voters did not vote and 1600 votes were declared as invalid. The winner, A got 4800 votes more than his opponent thus he secured 51% votes of the total voters on the voter list. Percentage votes of the loser candidate, B out of the total voters on the voter list is:
A. 5.6%
B. 3%
C. 6.2%
D. 5%
E. 4.6%

Answer: B. 3%

5. The monthly income of Shyama and Kamal together is Rs.28000. The income of Shyama and Kamal is increased by 25% and 12.5% respectively. The new income of Kamal becomes 120% of the new salary of Shyama. What is the new income of Shyama?
A. Rs.12000
B. Rs.18000
C. Rs.14000
D. Rs.16000
E. Rs.15000

Answer: E. Rs.15000

Mixture and Allegation Questions

1. A Container contains 192 liter of Milk. A seller draws out x% of Milk and replaced it with the same quantity of water. He repeated the same process for 3 times. And thus Milk content in the mixture is only 81 liter. Then how much percent he withdraw every time?
1. 10%
2. 15%
3. 18%
4. 20%
5. 25%

Answer – 5. 25%

2. A Container contains ‘X’ Liters of Milk. A thief stole 50 Liters of Milk and replaced it with the same quantity of water. He repeated the same process further two times. And thus Milk in the container is only ‘X-122’ liters. Then what is the quantity of water in the final mixture?
1. 122 Liter
2. 124 Liter
3. 128 Liter
4. 250 Liter
5. Cannot be determined

Answer –1. 122 Liter

3. A Jar contains 100 liters of Milk a thief stole 10 liter of Milk and replaced it with water. Next, he stole 20 liter of Milk and replaced it with water. Again he stole 25 liter of Milk and replaced with water. Then what is the quantity of water in the final mixture?
1. 55 Liter
2. 54 Liter
3. 50 Liter
4. 46 Liter
5. None

Answer – 4. 46 Liter

4. ‘X’ Liters of the mixture contains Milk and Water in the ratio 4:3. If 13 liters of Water is added then the ratio becomes 1:1. Then what is the final quantity of water in the mixture?
1. 39
2. 52
3. 56
4. 72
5. Cannot be determined

Answer – 2. 52

5. From a container, a thief has stolen 10 liters of Milk and replaced with the same quantity of water. He repeated the process for three times, then the ratio of Milk to water became 343:169.The initial amount of Milk in the container is?
1. 80 liter
2. 100 liter
3. 120 liter
4. 130 liter
5. None

Answer – 1. 80 liter

Mensuration Questions

1. A right circular cone is placed over a cylinder of the same radius. Now the combined structure is painted on all sides. Then they are separated now the ratio of area painted on Cylinder to Cone is 3:1. What is the height of Cylinder if the height of Cone is 4 m and radius is 3 m?
1. 5 m
2. 6 m
3. 8 m
4. 10 m
5. Cannot be determined

Answer – 2. 6 m

2. The diameter of Road Roller is 84 cm and its length is 150 cm. It takes 600 revolutions to level once on a particular road. Then what is the area of that road in m²?
1. 2376
2. 2476
3. 2496
4. 2516
5. None

Answer – 1. 2376

3. ABCD is a square of 20 m. What is the area of the least-sized square that can be inscribed in it with its vertices on the sides of ABCD?
1. 120 m²
2. 100 m²
3. 200 m²
4. 250 m²
5. None

Answer – 3. 200 m²

4. A hollow cylindrical tube is made of plastic is 4 cm thick. If the external diameter is 18 cm and length of the tube is 59cm, then find the volume of the plastic?
1. 10380 cm³
2. 10384 cm³
3. 10440 cm³
4. 10444 cm³
5. None

Answer – 2. 10384 cm³

5. The area of the Circular garden is 88704 m². Outside the garden a road of 7m width laid around it. What would be the cost of laying road at Rs. 2/m².
1. Rs.7546
2. Rs.10036
3. Rs.11092
4. Rs.15092
5. Rs.16086

Answer – 4. Rs.15092

Permutation & Combination Questions

1. How many 3 digit number can be formed with the digits 5, 6, 2, 3, 7 and 9 which are divisible by 5 and none of its digit is repeated?
a) 12
b) 16
c) 20
d) 24
e) None of these

Answer – c) 20

2. There are 4 bananas, 7 apples and 6 mangoes in a fruit basket. In how many ways can a person make a selection of fruits from the basket.
a) 269
b) 280
c) 279
d) 256
e) None of these

Answer – c) 279

3. There are 15 points in a plane out of which 6 are collinear. Find the number of lines that can be formed from 15 points.
a) 105
b) 90
c) 91
d) 95
e) None of these

Answer – c) 91

4. If 2 particular member is always included
a) 210
b) 270
c) 310
d) 420
e) None of these

Answer – a) 210

5. In a group of 6 boys and 5 girls, 5 students have to be selected. In how many ways it can be done so that at least 2 boys are included
a) 1524
b) 1526
c) 1540
d) 1560
e) None of these

Answer – b) 1526

Data Interpretation Questions

The ratio of male to female employees in an organization is 5 : 7. All employees of the organization work at different levels. (Level- I, II, III, IV, V). 16 2/3% of the male employees work at level I. The difference between male employees working at level II and male employees working at level IV is 114, while the sum of the same is 250. (male employees at level II < male employees at level IV). 9 male employees work at level V, which is 2% of the total number of male employees. remaining male employees work at level III. 22 2/9% of the female employees work at level I. The no. Female employees working at level II is 6 more than the no. of female employees working at level III. The number of female employees working at level IV is 2 more than the number of male employees at the same level. The number of female employees working at level V is 57 1/7% of the female employees working at level I.

1. Find the total number of employees working on level II.
1) 176
2) 184
3) 188
4) 192
5) None of these

Answer – 2)184

2. Female employees working on level V constitutes what percent of total number of employees in the organization?
1) 5 1/9%
2) 5 1/3%
3) 5 5/9%
4) 7 11/27%
5) None of these

Answer – 4) 7 11/27%

3. What is the respective ratio of male employees working at level I to the female employees working at level V?
1) 15 : 16
2) 14 : 15
3) 15 : 17
4) 17 : 19
5) None of these

Answer – 1) 15: 16

4. What is the total number of employees working at level I, level II and level III?
1) 325
2) 425
3) 475
4) 525
5) None of these

Answer – 5) None of these

5. The number of female employees of which level is equal to the number of male employees of level III?
1) level I
2) level II
3) level III
4) level IV
5) level V

Answer – 2) level II

IBPS SO Online Coaching

IBPS SO Online Coaching

IBPS SO English Important Questions

Check out the most expected English Language topic-wise questions for IBPS SO Exam here.

Fill in the Blanks

In the given sentences a blank is given indicating that something is missing. From the given four options, (1), (2), (3), (4), a combination of words would fit the blank thereby making it grammatically and contextually correct. Select that option as the answer. If all the given combinations fit perfectly, then select ‘All fit’ as the answer.

1. If India’s universities develop tomorrow’s technologies, it could provide cutting-edge and __________ technologies.
I. frugal
II. ascetic
III. economical
IV. meagre
1. III,IV
2. II,III
3. I,III
4. III,IV
5. All fit

Answer –3) I,III

2. States need to ________ competition and give a boost to all key stakeholders in education in the driver’s seat to improve their learning levels.
I. peddle
II. induce
III. coerce
IV. foster

1. II,IV
2. I,III
3. I,II
4. III,IV
5. All fit

Answer – 1) II,IV

3. In a business-as-usual scenario, the world will ________ its energy related resources in less than a fifty years to trigger a crisis it isn’t able to cope with.
I. dispel
II. exhaust
III. evaporate
IV. dissipate

1. I,IV
2. II,IV
3. I,III
4. II,IV
5. All fit

Answer – 2) II,IV

4. Under the current Memorandum of Procedure the government can reject a name sent by the collegium, but if the latter ______ it the appointment must go through.
I. reiterates
II. repeat
III. restate
IV. ingeminate

1. III , IV
2. I , II
3. IV
4. I , II , III
5. All fit

Answer : 5) All Fit

5. Oxytocin stimulates lactation in cattle, dairy farmers inject the drug _______ to increase milk production.
I. actuating
II. indiscriminately
III. profusely
IV. purposelessly

1. I , II
2. II , II , IV
3. II , IV
4. I
5. All fit

Answer : 3) II, IV

Sentence Correction

1. The liveability index every year quantifying the challenges that may be presented to an individual’s lifestyle in one hundred cities worldwide and assesses which location provide the best living conditions based on political, social and economic stability.
1. quantifies the challenges which may be present to
2. quantifies the challenges that might be presented to
3. quantifying the challenges which are being presented in
4. quantifying the challenges that might have been presented to
5. No correction required

Answer – 2) quantifies the challenges that might be presented to

2. Free trade agreements are often the agreements between two or more countries, or among a country and a trading bloc to abolish or reduce tariffs, quotas and preferences on goods and services so as to have free trade for reciprocative benefits.
1. or among a country with a trading bloc for
2. or between a country and trading blocs to
3. or amongst a country or a trading bloc for
4. or between a country and a trading bloc to
5. No correction required

Answer – 4) or between a country and a trading bloc to

3. The WHO global air pollution database released in Geneva reveals that India has 14 out of 15 most polluted cities in the world in terms of PM 2.5 concentration and the fact that the data collected for survey were of preliminary stages and not the deep reports is even being much alarming.
1. has been even more alarming
2. is even much alarming
3. has even much alarming
4. is even more alarming
5. No correction required

Answer – 4) is even more alarming

4. Policies established for the benefits of rural women should be tested and re-assessed by the beneficiaries, using them as a social learning tool and not like individuals in which political authority is exercised.
1. not as individuals on whom
2. whether or not like individuals on which
3. not as individuals through whom
4. not like individuals by whom
5. No correction required

Answer – 1) not as individuals on whom

5. The e-governance improves the delivery of government services to people from re-deploying resources from backing end processing to the front line of customer service.
1. from re-deploying resources from back end
2. by re-deploying resources from back end
3. by re-deploying resources to back end
4. from re-deploying resources till back end
5. No correction required

Answer – 2) by re-deploying resources from back end

Error Spotting

In each of the questions, there’s an error in any two parts of the sentences. You have to identify the same and if there’s no error according to you, then mark option five as your answer.

1. With the demands of industry(A)/ and service sectors changing(B)/ at such a rapid pace, students need to(C)/ be sharp and choose a career wisely. (D)
1. AC
2. BD
3. BC
4. CD
5. No error

Answer – 5. No error

2. No institution,(A)/ however high,(B)/ including the judiciary,(C)/ should insulate oneself from improvements.(D)
1. BC
2. AD
3. BD
4. CD
5. No error

Answer – 3. BD

3. An urban employment guarantee(A)/ scheme not only improves(B)/ incomes of workers but also(C)/ has multiplier effects on the economy(D)
1. BC
2. AD
3. BD
4. AC
5. No error

Answer – 5. No error

4. The salient of space(A)/ in defense is evident from(B)/ the fact that all three countries- U.S., China, and Russia(C)/ have set up ‘Space Commands’.(D)
1. CD
2. AB
3. BD
4. AC
5. No error

Answer – 2. AB

5. The new-minted term(A)/ ‘green crackers’ grabbed headlines,(B)/ but doubts remain(C)/ about its effectiveness and practicality.(D)
1. AC
2. BD
3. AB
4. AD
5. No error

Answer – 4. AD

Cloze Test

In the passage given below, there are 5 blanks. Every blank has four alternative words or Sentences given in options (1),(2),(3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if no change is required i.e “No change required”.

The ________(1) of unemployment to the individual are not hard to imagine. When a person loses his or her job, there is often an ________(2) impact to that person’s standard of living. Prior to the Great Recession, the average savings rate in the U.S. had been drifting down towards zero (and sometimes below), and there are __________(3) reports that the average person is only a few weeks away from serious financial trouble without a paying job. Even for those _________(4) for unemployment benefits and other forms of government assistance, it is often the case that these benefits replace 50% or less of their regular income. That means these people are consuming far less than usual. However, the economic consequences can go beyond just less consumption. Many people will turn to retirement savings in a pinch, and draining these savings has long-term _________(5)

1. 1. charges
2. cost
3. costs
4. expense
5. No change required

Answer: 3. costs

2. 1. urgent
2. immediate
3. critical
4. currently
5. No change required

Answer: 2. immediate

3. 1. experiential
2. incidental
3. fictional
4. anecdotal
5. No change required

Answer: 4. anecdotal

4. 1. eligible
2. justified
3. permitted
4. seemly
5. No change required

Answer: 1. eligible

5. 1. development
2. ramifications
3. effect
4. manifestations
5. No change required

Answer: 2. ramifications

Sentence Improvement

1. The single company that stayed in the fray could submit a cheaper offer because it already runs similar voting systems in a number of countries — where the system has been accused of malfunction or vulnerability to tinkering.
1) submit a cheaper offer because it already runs
2) submit a cheaper offer because its already runs
3) submit a cheaper offer because it already run
4) submit a cheaper offer because it already running
5) No correction required

Answer: 5) No correction required

2. The BCCI’s elbow room has shrunk, and it is expected that the chastised board will toe the line, though this has time till October 6 to file a reply in the Supreme Court.
1) though it have time till
2) though this have time until
3) though it has time till
4) though it has time until
5) No correction required

Answer : 3) though it has time till

3. Indian exporters, especially from the employment-oriented engineering (sector), suffer due to high-cost production, with the situation aggravated by (government-imposed) restrictions on imports on steel, the basic raw material.
1) suffer due to high cost of productions
2) suffers due to high cost production
3) suffers due to high cost of production
4) suffer due to high cost of production
5) No correction required

Answer: 4) suffer due to high cost of production

4. The manager called the clerk and said whether he was in the habit of sleeping at home as well.
1) calls the clerk and says if
2) called the clerk and asked whether
3) called the clerk and said if
4) call the clerk and ask whether
5) No improvement

Answer: 2) called the clerk and asked whether

5. For years I do my washing by hand; then last year I a washing machine and I must say it has made washing day much exhausting.
1) For years I did my washing by hand; then last year
2) For years I have doing my washing by hand; then last year
3) For years I have done washing by hand; then last year
4) For years I have been doing my washing by hand; then last year
5) No improvement

Answer : 3) For years I have done washing by hand; then last year

FAQ's

When can I start filling the application form for IBPS SO 2020?

You can start filling the application form November 6, 2019.

When is the last date to fill the IBPS SO Application Form 2020?

The last date to fill the IBPS SO Application Form is November 26, 2019.

When is the IBPS SO Prelims Exam 2019?

The IBPS SO Prelims Exam 2019 is conducted on December 28 & 29, 2019.

When will the Admit Card be released for IBPS SO Prelims Exam 2019?

IBPS will release the admit card for IBPS SO Prelims before 10 days of the exam.

How many vacancies are there in IBPS SO 2020?

As the exact vacancy is not yet released, but there is more than 1500 vacancies expected in IBPS SO 2019.

How many posts are present under Specialist Officer?

There are 6 posts present under Specialist Officer which include IT Officer, Agricultural Field Officer, Rajabhasha Adhikari, Law Officer, HR/Personnel Officer, Marketing Officer.

What is total of vacancies for Marketing Officer?

As the exact vacancies are not yet released, however there is an expected vacancy of 302 for Marketing Officer post.

When is the IBPS SO Prelims Exam conducted?

The IBPS SO Prelims Exam is conducted on December 28 & 29, 2019. 

How many shifts are there in IBPS SO Prelims Exam 2019?

There are a total of 2 shifts each day in IBPS SO Prelims Exam 2019. 

What is the IBPS SO Shift 1 timings?

The IBPS SO Shift 1 is conducted from 10:00 AM to 12:00 PM.

What is the IBPS SO Shift 2 timings?

The IBPS SO Shift 2 is conducted from 02:00 PM to 04:00 PM.

When will the IBPS SO Exam Analysis 2019 done?

The IBPS SO Exam Analysis will be done after receiving the feedback about the question paper from students who had appeared for the exam.

What does the IBPS SO Prelims Exam Analysis 2019 include?

The IBPS SO Prelims Exam Analysis 2019 include difficulty level, good attempts, and which questions were asked in the exam.

What is the time duration for completing the IBPS SO Prelims Exam 2019?

The total time duration to complete the IBPS SO Prelims Exam 2019 is 120 minutes.