December 1, 2024
Overview: Prepare for the CLAT PG 2026 exam by practising with previous years' question papers and answer keys from the last four years, available in this article. If you are looking for CLAT PG 2025 Question Paper, then you are at right place.
You can view the CLAT PG question papers on this website or download them and keep them with you for preparation and future reference. So, let's begin!
Looking for more details on the exam? Check out CLAT PG Notification 2025 page!
You can download free PDFs of these papers here and refer to CLAT preparation books that include previous years' papers for practice.
The CLAT PG previous year's question paper will help you identify the type of questions asked from each section.
You can also determine the difficulty level and list down the important sections with maximum weightage, helping your preparations.
CLAT PG Syllabus includes subjects like:
Learning and practising all these subjects/ sections are crucial to clear the CLAT PG exam.
Read Detailed Guide: CLAT PG Syllabus 2025
As said above, practice plays an important role in your CLAT PG preparations.
Hence, to aid your preparation, we have given some important Landmark Judgements Questions for CLAT PG 2024.
To learn more about this topic, refer to Landmark Judgement Questions For CLAT PG 2024
1 - Which of the following case decided by the Supreme Court is related to ‘mental cruelty'?
a. Rooplal v Kartaro
b. Sayal v Sarla
c. Dastane v Dastane
d. None of the above
2 - Muhammad Afzal v Ghulam Kasim (1903) ILR 843 is a leading case on which of the following?
a. Doctrine of election
b. The doctrine of holding over
c. The rule against perpetuity
d. None of the above
3 - S.R. Bommai v Union of India, JT 1994 (2) SC 215 is related to
a. President Rule in State under Article 356
b. National Emergency under Article 352
c. Financial Emergency
d. None of the above
4 - The NJAC Act was declared unconstitutional in
a. Sakal Chand v Union of India
b. S P Gupta v Union of India
c. SC Adv on Record Association v Union of India
d. In re Presidential reference of 1998
5 - The case relating to Parliamentary Privileges is
a. Keshav Singh v Speaker of The UP Assembly
b. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
c. Minerva Mills v Union of India
d. A K Gopalan v Union of India
1- Maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code can be claimed by
a) Wife
b) Everyone
c) Parents
d) Both a and c
Ans - Wife and Parents
2 - A person who helps the other person is an
a) Abettor
b) Instigator
c) Accomplice
d) Friend
Ans - Accomplice
3 - The offence of theft can only be against
a) Movable property
b) Immovable property
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) All properties
Ans - Movable property
4 - The Law of the contract is a:
a) Criminal Law
b) Civil Law
c) International Law
d) Disputed Laws
Ans- Civil Law
5 - The tort is a species of:
a) Criminal wrong
b) Breach of contract
c) Civil wrong
d) Moral wrong
Ans- Civil wrong
1 - Which one of the following is not formally considered an amendment to the Constitution under Article 368?
a) Creation of new states
b) Change in the Preamble
c) Change in Part IV A
d) Change in Part XII
Answer: (a)
2 - Which of the following category of judges is not mentioned in the Constitution?
a) Acting Judge
b) Additional Judge
c) Ad hoc Judge
d) Puisne Judge
Answer: (d)
3 - The ordinance-making power of the President under the Indian Constitution is:
a) An Executive power
b) A legislative power
c) Quasi-legislative power
d) Quasi executive power
Answer: (a)
4 - Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
a) B N Rau
b) B R Ambedkar
c) Rajendra Prasad
d) K M Munshi
Answer: (a)
5 - The recent amendment to the Constitution of India paving the way for 10% reservation for Economically Weaker sections was done by amending:
a) Article 14
b) Articles 15 and 16
c) Article 15
d) Article 338
Answer: (b)
Read Detailed Guide: Constitutional Law Preparation for CLAT PG 2025
1 - Which of the following is a fundamental element of a valid contract under Indian contract law?
a. Offer and Acceptance
b. Consideration
c. Legal capacity of the parties
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
2 - In a contract, what do we call an agreement made without any intention of creating legal relations?
a. Void contract
b. Voidable contract
c. Social agreement
d. Agreement without consideration
Answer: (c) Social agreement
3 - What is the maximum number of persons that can constitute a 'Promissory Estoppel' under the Indian Contract Act?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. It varies depending on the situation
Answer: (a) 2
4 - A contract with a minor is considered:
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable at the minor's option
d. Unenforceable
Answer: (c) Voidable at the minor's option
5 - In contract law, what is a unilateral contract?
a. A contract that is valid only when both parties fulfill their obligations.
b. A contract in which one party makes a promise in exchange for the other party's performance.
c. A contract that can be canceled by one party unilaterally.
d. A contract that is legally binding without any offer or acceptance.
Answer: (b) A contract in which one party makes a promise in exchange for the other party's performance.
1 - What is the key element of the tort of negligence?
a. Intent
b. Duty of care
c. Damages
d. Strict liability
Answer: (b) Duty of care
2 - Which of the following is not a defense to a claim of defamation in tort law?
a. Truth
b. Fair comment
c. Qualified privilege
d. Consent
Answer: (d) Consent
3 - In the tort of nuisance, what type of nuisance involves interference with an individual's right to use and enjoy their land?
a. Private nuisance
b. Public nuisance
c. Absolute nuisance
d. Vicarious nuisance
Answer: (a) Private nuisance
4 - What tort involves causing a person to fear that they are about to be physically harmed?
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. Trespass
d. False imprisonment
Answer: (a) Assault
5 - What is the term for the act of intentionally causing someone to believe in a false statement that causes harm?
a. Defamation
b. Misrepresentation
c. Trespass
d. Negligence
Answer: (b) Misrepresentation
1 - Who is known for his theory of legal positivism, emphasizing the separation of law and morals?
a. John Locke
b. Immanuel Kant
c. Jeremy Bentham
d. John Stuart Mill
Answer: (c) Jeremy Bentham
2 - Which jurisprudential theory is primarily concerned with the idea that laws should promote fairness and justice?
a. Natural Law
b. Legal Realism
c. Utilitarianism
d. Positivism
Answer: (a) Natural Law
3 - In jurisprudence, what is the "veil of ignorance" conceptually associated with?
a. Feminist Jurisprudence
b. Rawlsian Justice
c. Analytical Jurisprudence
d. Sociological Jurisprudence
Answer: (b) Rawlsian Justice
4 - Which jurisprudential concept refers to the principle that laws should be clear and understandable to those subject to them?
a. Certainty
b. Justice
c. Equity
d. Equality
Answer: (a) Certainty
5 - Who is famous for his "doctrine of precedent" in jurisprudence, also known as "stare decisis"?
a. H.L.A. Hart
b. Oliver Wendell Holmes Jr.
c. John Austin
d. Roscoe Pound
Answer: (b) Oliver Wendell Holmes Jr.
1 - In family law, what legal term is used to describe the formal ending of a marriage by a court order?
a. Separation
b. Divorce
c. Annulment
d. Custody
Answer: (b) Divorce
2 - What is the term for a legal relationship between an adult and a child who is not biologically related but is legally treated as a child of the adult?
a. Adoption
b. Guardianship
c. Custody
d. Foster care
Answer: (a) Adoption
3 - Which principle in family law presumes that a child born during a marriage is the legal child of the husband and wife?
a. Paternity presumption
b. Adoption
c. Presumption of legitimacy
d. Child custody
Answer: (c) Presumption of legitimacy
4 - In family law, what term is used to describe the legal process through which a child's biological parents' rights are terminated, and another adult or couple adopts the child?
a. Surrogacy
b. Guardianship
c. Termination of parental rights
d. Child custody
Answer: (c) Termination of parental rights
5 - What legal document allows an individual to specify their wishes regarding medical treatment in case they become incapacitated and unable to make decisions?
a. Will
b. Trust
c. Power of Attorney
d. Living Will
Answer: (d) Living Will
1 - In public international law, what is the term for a formal agreement between two or more states that is governed by international law?
a. Treaty
b. Constitution
c. Statute
d. Protocol
Answer: (a) Treaty
2 - Which body is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, responsible for settling legal disputes between states and providing advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by the UN General Assembly, Security Council, and other UN bodies?
a. International Court of Justice (ICJ)
b. International Criminal Court (ICC)
c. International Criminal Tribunal for the Former Yugoslavia (ICTY)
d. Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)
Answer: (a) International Court of Justice (ICJ)
3 - What doctrine in public international law allows a state to assert jurisdiction over a foreign national for crimes committed outside its own territory against its interests?
a. Doctrine of Sovereign Immunity
b. Doctrine of State Responsibility
c. Universal Jurisdiction
d. Diplomatic Immunity
Answer: (c) Universal Jurisdiction
4 - Which international organization is responsible for the codification and development of international law and has a primary role in the peaceful settlement of international disputes?
a. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
b. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
c. International Court of Justice (ICJ)
d. United Nations (UN)
Answer: (d) United Nations (UN)
5 - What is the principle in public international law that emphasizes the peaceful coexistence of states and the avoidance of the use of force in international relations?
a. Principle of Territorial Integrity
b. Principle of Sovereign Equality
c. Principle of Non-Intervention
d. Principle of Pacifism
Answer: (c) Principle of Non-Intervention
1 - Which international treaty, also known as the Biodiversity Convention, aims to conserve biological diversity and promote the sustainable use of its components?
a. Kyoto Protocol
b. Paris Agreement
c. Ramsar Convention
d. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
Answer: (d) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
2 - What is the term for the practice of setting aside and protecting certain areas of the environment to maintain their natural state and conserve biodiversity?
a. Conservation
b. Preservation
c. Biodiversity
d. Wilderness
Answer: (b) Preservation
3 - Which international agreement, adopted in 1987, aims to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances?
a. Rio Declaration
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Basel Convention
d. Stockholm Convention
Answer: (b) Montreal Protocol
4 - What is the primary purpose of an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in environmental law?
a. To regulate land use in urban areas
b. To assess the impact of a proposed project on the environment
c. To enforce air quality standards
d. To manage natural resources
Answer: (b) To assess the impact of a proposed project on the environment
5 - Which international body is responsible for regulating the trade in endangered species of wildlife through its Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)?
a. World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
b. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
c. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
d. CITES Secretariat
Answer: (d) CITES Secretariat
1 - In the context of Company Law, what is the significance of the term "ultra vires"?
a. Beyond the powers
b. Intra powers
c. Ultra powers
d. Extra powers
Answer: a. Beyond the powers
2 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the doctrine of lifting the corporate veil?
a. It is applicable only to private companies
b. It is a legal fiction disregarding the separate legal personality of a company
c. It is primarily used in criminal cases
d. It applies only to public companies
Answer: b. It is a legal fiction disregarding the separate legal personality of a company
3 - Under Company Law, what is the minimum number of members required to form a private company?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
Answer: a. 2
4 - What is the purpose of a Memorandum of Association in the formation of a company?
a. It defines the rights and duties of the shareholders
b. It outlines the company's financial statements
c. It specifies the company's objectives and powers
d. It appoints the company's directors
Answer: c. It specifies the company's objectives and powers
5 - According to Company Law, what is the role of the Registrar of Companies (RoC) in the registration process?
a. To manage the company's finances
b. To ensure compliance with legal requirements and maintain company records
c. To represent the company in legal proceedings
d. To handle the company's public relations
Answer: b. To ensure compliance with legal requirements and maintain company records
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